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More Proof by induction(the rearranging bit)

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Original post by RDKGames
Keep in mind that would give you the Uk+1U_{k+1}. For UkU_k you'd need to map k(k1)k \mapsto (k-1) on the right side. This would give you the exact same thing as mine would and proof would hold.

yup

Original post by B_9710
The proof for showing the results for Uk U_k or Uk+1 U_{k+1} are equivalent, they're exactly the same. With induction all you need to show is that if the result is true for Uk U_k then using logical arguments it implies that the result is also true for Uk+1 U_{k+1} .

awesome thanks both

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