I get the implications of the fact that there is no interference of light, but only when i accept that the light ray perpendicular to earths motion has travelled farther, which is what i dont get.
I've done some really simple calculations and to me it seems like i've disproved the validity of the experiment for what it implies.lol.I think im definitely missing something.
Here are my calculations:
The Earth rotates around the Sun at a speed of roughly 30,000 m/s, which means it travels through the supposed ether at 30,000 m/s ????
A single light ray (for simplicity) is emitted perpendicular to earths motion, ie towards the sky, where it is reflected by a mirror and then detected when it returns.
Light travels at 3 x 10^8 m/s.
Assuming the mirror is 50m up, the light ray travels 100m before being detected. time = dist/speed = 100/3 x 10^8 = 0.3 microseconds
In this time, the earth has moved a distance of 30,000 x 0.3 microseconds = 0.01m , ie a cm. Therefore, in the time it takes for any given lightray to be emitted and then detected, the appuratus has only moved a cm through the ether, in which case it can still be detected.
The lightray parallel to earths motion has travelled exactly the same distance because when it returns to the detector, the earth moving in the opposite direction to it through the ether compensates for when the lightray is emitted and has to "catch up" the mirror.
Therefore, both lightrays have travelled the same distance, and interference shouldn't be observed anyway, assuming the detector can "detect" within the range of a cm.
And thats when the mirrors are 50m away. When they are 5m away, the distance travelled through the ether is only a mm.
As you,ve probably guessed, im imagining the light moving in the same line through the ether, ie like if you were to throw a ball directly up while running, the ball would not have any horizontal movement, and this makes sense to me because electromagnetic field dynamics are different to human-ball dynamics in my eyes.