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Original post by Ben385
This year the Part IB pure questions were exceptionally hard (Linear Algebra & Analysis II especially), so I'm told. Hence, many people doing predominantly pure struggled- evidence of this is Trinitarians falling an average of 20 places each compared to how they did in IA. Luckily I switched to the dark side and took numerical analysis...


So do you think/know the top were still all pure in your year or not?
Original post by HeavisideDelts
So do you think/know the top were still all pure in your year or not?


I doubt senior wrangler every year, or the top few are always pure. I cant see why it wouldnt be even among pure/applied, probably changes a lot so can't go by anecdote. Otherwise, the system is flawed to persuade the top to do pure over their subject interests just to get the highest marks...
Original post by newblood
I doubt senior wrangler every year, or the top few are always pure. I cant see why it wouldnt be even among pure/applied, probably changes a lot so can't go by anecdote. Otherwise, the system is flawed to persuade the top to do pure over their subject interests just to get the highest marks...


I suspect the chances of being senior wrangler and doing majority applied courses is significantly less than someone of equal ability doing majority pure courses. I say this because, having discussed it with others, the fastest applied questions generally take significantly longer than their pure counterparts due to the fact they often involve a significant computational element which eats up time. I would say that my fastest question (applied) takes around 25 mins - this basically just writing time, almost no thinking - with the slowest taking around 30. Obviously this is just anecdotal, although I did well enough that I feel it has some weight to it, and I'm sure that people can write faster than I can but even so you'd have to do something special to get the time taken consistently down to a level where you can get 8/9+ questions out on each paper.
(edited 7 years ago)
Original post by JosephML
I suspect the chances of being senior wrangler and doing majority applied courses is significantly less than someone of equal ability doing majority pure courses. I say this because, having discussed it with others, the fastest applied questions generally take significantly longer than their pure counterparts due to the fact they often involve a significant computational element which eats up time. I would say that my fastest question (applied) takes around 25 mins - this basically just writing time, almost no thinking - with the slowest taking around 30. Obviously this is just anecdotal, although I did well enough that I feel it has some weight to it, and I'm sure that people can write faster than I can but even so you'd have to do something special to get the time taken consistently down to a level where you can get 8/9+ questions out on each paper.


If your slowest is only 30 minutes then there are plenty of us who'd like to know your secrets :tongue: There's many a question I've banged my head against for far longer (though thankfully not in the exam!).

From my experience what you're saying would make sense. My experience of pure questions is they are conditionally faster if you know what you're doing. I was getting alphas in the Graph Theory questions in 15-20 minutes this year thanks to some quite nice questions set, and I am a reasonably slow leftie who rewrites every lecture because I cannot write them to a sufficiently neat standard sufficiently quickly in real time. Obviously some Pure takes longer than others (There was a Linear Analysis Q this year taking a good 30 minutes just to write out despite being conceptually pretty simple) but there you go.

There's also the question of question quality - whilst it is natural to try for 20/20 on every question I have heard of Senior Wranglers instead aiming to get enough for the alpha and then move swiftly on to try get more due to the sheer number of bonus points they provide.
(edited 7 years ago)
Original post by DJMayes
If your slowest is only 30 minutes then there are plenty of us who'd like to know your secrets :tongue: There's many a question I've banged my head against for far longer (though thankfully not in the exam!).


Haha, that was a slight exaggeration - I was a bit drunk last night - but it probably isn't far off my absolute peak just before and during the exams (obviously discounting Qs that I don't finish because that would ruin the average :wink: ).
Are there any prerequisites for Part II Graph Theory? (other courses in IA or IB that need to be taken first)

Thanks.
Original post by tridianprime
Are there any prerequisites for Part II Graph Theory? (other courses in IA or IB that need to be taken first)

Thanks.

no
Original post by tridianprime
Are there any prerequisites for Part II Graph Theory? (other courses in IA or IB that need to be taken first)

Thanks.


This is a good guide to prerequisites for part II; the advice given for graph theory seems very sound to me. Wilson's little book is a very nice introduction, if you want to see what's in store!
Original post by tridianprime
Are there any prerequisites for Part II Graph Theory? (other courses in IA or IB that need to be taken first)

Thanks.


Nah, it's accessible to any Part II student. I personally wouldn't bother with books for it; it's usually lectured by Leader who is more than sufficient for the course and who doesn't rely rate any of the books for it except Bollobas' anyway.
Original post by cloisters
Hi, question regarding Burkill's Analysis (first course): I understand up to where he says he will take the positive integers for granted as well as those operations on them needed for extending the number system. However, while most of the assumptions he subsequently states are in fact used for this purpose (positive integers, the arithmetic operations, the fact that the positive integers exhibit order), I don't see where the fact that 1.a=a.1=a is used. Since he said he will only state things that will be used for extending the number system, I don't see why he should have stated this fact if he didn't then use it somewhere for the purpose of extending the number system. Addition was used in setting up the equation a+x=b which was then used for defining 0 and negative numbers; division was used for solving bx=a; the fact that the positive integers exhibit order is assumed when stating that a+x=b isn't soluble in positive integers for a>=b; nowhere is the fact 1.a=a.1=a used, however.


You use it for a lot of stuff. Say for example in proving that ab = ac means b=c. You multiply both sides by a^(-1) to get (a . a^(-1)) b = (a . a^(-1)) c, and so you get 1.b = 1.c but by the rule, this means 1.b=b and 1.c = c so b=c.

Another example is ab= 0 means a =0 or b=0. To prove, assume a =/=0 then from ab=0, multiply both sides by a^(-1) to get 1.b = 0. But this means b=0 by the rule.

etc... tons of places you need to use it, just places that you think seem very trivial.

Secondly, why is it that when extending the number system to include 0, negative numbers and rational numbers, he didn't show how to construct them, whereas for irrational numbers he went through the pain of doing so via Dedekind cuts. Is it because the real numbers are more "important" in analysis than negative and rational numbers (therefore we must study them in more detail, which includes constructing them)? Or is it because unlike negative and rational numbers, which are each contained in one compact form (-a and a/b respectively), the irrational numbers are scattered about (some are square roots, other cube roots, still others - such as pi - effectively just symbols, not even the solution of any equation with integer coefficients) and so we must define them in a way that gathers them under one compact concept?

Any light you can shed on these two matters, would be appreciated.

Thanks


You do need to construct the integers and rationals from the naturals, he just doesn't bother because he presupposes it's either elementary or too pedantic/trivial/formal to do in a "first course" of real analysis. Anywho, the integers are easy enough, just take the negative of the naturals and union it with the naturals. (although you need to do some work) and rationals aren't too hard either, just quotients of integers where you can define a/b to be the ordereed part (a,b) belonging to a certain equivalence class. So to do all this construction, he'd have to teach things like equivalence classes and the likes that he must have felt just weren't worth the trouble to construct something as as fundamental as the intengers in a first course book.
Original post by cloisters
Yes but he doesn't actually need those proof does he, since he states them as axioms.


Nooo, he doesn't at all!

Untitled1.png

As you can see, he's proving that ab = ac => b=c. It's not an axiom, and in that proof, he makes uses the rule a * 1/a * c= 1 * c= c.


So I take it constructing them just isn't as important for analysis purposes (at least in a first course) as constructing the irrational numbers?

Thanks for your replies by the way :smile:


Yep, pretty much!

No worries, are you coming to Cambridge this October? :smile:
Original post by cloisters
Technically though he isn't using it for extending the number system (the proof you cite is not for one of the 11 axioms he states by the way) which by the time he gives that proof has already been extended to encompass the real numbers, if you see what I mean. Maybe I'm just being pedantic :P



Ah, I see what you mean now! I guess the best you're going to get from me is that it extends the number system by turning the reals into a ordered field, it wouldn't be an ordered field without a multiplicative identity. So it's not quite extending it in the sense of "integers -> rationals" or "rationals -> reals" but in the sense of "set of numbers -> ordered field".
Original post by cloisters
"The best I'm going to get from you" is exactly what I was after - thanks!


No worries, keep your eyes peeled, you'll probably get someone who (actually, unlike me) knows something about analysis offering you a few tidbits of wisdom. :smile:
Original post by cloisters
Humble (but only if you aren't aware of your humbleness :wink: )


No, I just actually haven't ever done any analysis. :lol:
Original post by cloisters
Hi, question regarding Burkill's Analysis (first course): I understand up to where he says he will take the positive integers for granted as well as those operations on them needed for extending the number system. However, while most of the assumptions he subsequently states are in fact used for this purpose (positive integers, the arithmetic operations, the fact that the positive integers exhibit order), I don't see where the fact that 1.a=a.1=a is used. Since he said he will only state things that will be used for extending the number system, I don't see why he should have stated this fact if he didn't then use it somewhere for the purpose of extending the number system. Addition was used in setting up the equation a+x=b which was then used for defining 0 and negative numbers; division was used for solving bx=a; the fact that the positive integers exhibit order is assumed when stating that a+x=b isn't soluble in positive integers for a>=b; nowhere is the fact 1.a=a.1=a used, however.

Secondly, why is it that when extending the number system to include 0, negative numbers and rational numbers, he didn't show how to construct them, whereas for irrational numbers he went through the pain of doing so via Dedekind cuts. Is it because the real numbers are more "important" in analysis than negative and rational numbers (therefore we must study them in more detail, which includes constructing them)? Or is it because unlike negative and rational numbers, which are each contained in one compact form (-a and a/b respectively), the irrational numbers are scattered about (some are square roots, other cube roots, still others - such as pi - effectively just symbols, not even the solution of any equation with integer coefficients) and so we must define them in a way that gathers them under one compact concept?

Any light you can shed on these two matters, would be appreciated.

Thanks


I'm a bit late to this but it's a combination of a few things:

1) The rational numbers is something he presumably didn't show because it is a simple construction and he didn't want to waste time.

2) The real numbers most certainly are more important to analysis in the sense that you can't really do analysis without them! As you said, it's also much less obvious that real numbers exist and that you can extend the field of rationals to the field of reals in a single well defined way.

However, I was always introduced via the idea of least upper bounds - a single axiom that extends the entire field.

The axiom is very simple - that every non empty set of numbers with an upper bound has a smallest upper bound.

As an example of its use, we prove the square root of 2 exists. Consider the set of numbers whose square is less than 2 - this is obviously non empty and bounded above, so has a least upper bound, say X.

If X^2 is less than 2, then we can find a constant C>0 sufficiently small that (X+C)^2 is less than 2; then X was not an upper bound.

If X^2 > 2, then similarly to above we can find a smaller upper bound, so X was not the least.

Thus X^2 = 2, so X is our square root of 2.

Burkills book may teach this and it's the first thing you do in the Cambridge IA Analysis course but if not I wanted to talk about it because it really is a neat thing and much nicer than the other constructions of the reals in my opinion.
Original post by DJMayes
I'm a bit late to this but it's a combination of a few things:

1) The rational numbers is something he presumably didn't show because it is a simple construction and he didn't want to waste time.

2) The real numbers most certainly are more important to analysis in the sense that you can't really do analysis without them! As you said, it's also much less obvious that real numbers exist and that you can extend the field of rationals to the field of reals in a single well defined way.

However, I was always introduced via the idea of least upper bounds - a single axiom that extends the entire field.

The axiom is very simple - that every non empty set of numbers with an upper bound has a smallest upper bound.

As an example of its use, we prove the square root of 2 exists. Consider the set of numbers whose square is less than 2 - this is obviously non empty and bounded above, so has a least upper bound, say X.

If X^2 is less than 2, then we can find a constant C>0 sufficiently small that (X+C)^2 is less than 2; then X was not an upper bound.

If X^2 > 2, then similarly to above we can find a smaller upper bound, so X was not the least.

Thus X^2 = 2, so X is our square root of 2.

Burkills book may teach this and it's the first thing you do in the Cambridge IA Analysis course but if not I wanted to talk about it because it really is a neat thing and much nicer than the other constructions of the reals in my opinion.


Is this not just a specific example of a Dedekind cut? Haven't really done any analysis since IA but I would imagine that all constructions of the reals are in fact the same but written out slightly differently.. ?
(edited 7 years ago)
Original post by JosephML
Is this not just a specific example of a Dedekind cut? Haven't really done any analysis since IA but I would imagine that all constructions of the reals are in fact the same but written out slightly differently.. ?


Effectively yes, but I think it's the nicest way of writing it out :tongue: These two methods are effectively isomorphic when constructing a specific real number but the least upper bound axiom does lend itself nicely to proving the basic results of analysis on the reals.

Some constructions are certainly a bit different in flavour though, even if they result in the same thing. My example for this would be one I pulled from Wikipedia - that is, defining R\mathbb{R} as the completion of Q \mathbb{Q} with respect to the standard (Euclidean) metric.

This much more analytic construction does give you what you want but I'd argue it's much less effective. That it's ordered isn't as inherently obvious by definition, for example. The proofs directly from this axiom require you to explicitly construct Cauchy sequences as well, which is fine and instructive in its own right but does give them a decidedly different flavour.

Beyond all this it presupposes analytic ideas such as completeness which makes it inherently less suitable for a beginners construction when introducing the topic.
(edited 7 years ago)
Original post by cloisters
Hi, I've read the section on least upper bounds now and what I'm getting from Burkill's proof of the (existence of) least upper bounds theorem, is that the theorem is itself a specific case of Dedekind's axiom: the case of the dividing number being at the upper extreme of a bounded-above set.

Also, please correct me if I'm wrong, but how is DJMayes's proof a construction of root 2? I can see that it proves the existence of the number, but I don't see how showing that the positive number satisfying X^2=2 exists and is unique is the same as constructing it.


What's the issue? I feel you may have attached some extra significance to the word "construct". A construction is simply something that gives you what youre looking fot explicitly - in this case I constructed the square root of 2 because I have explicitly told you what it is - the Least upper bound of a given set.

If you want an example of a non-constructive proof that it exists, it would assume the square root of 2 doesn't exist and use that to derive a contradiction, most likely to the Fundamental Theorem of Algebra using the polynomial x^2-2. Such an argument would tell you that it exists but gives no hint about how to build it at all.
Original post by Themathgeek
Okay so I am split between cambridge and oxford (for a maths degree) so I would appreciate any help, advice and views on how much of a chance I stand getting an offer.

GCSE: 11A* 2A
AS: Maths (A), Further Maths (A), Economics (A), French (B)
A2 predictions 4A*: Maths, Further Maths, Additional further maths, Economics

I did 7 maths modules and average 95% ums

I've done a work placement, BMO, maths challenges, etc etc

Any advice for interview also welcome, thanks

Posted from TSR Mobile


You have sufficiently high grades to apply to either. It's a shame you don't offer Physics but Maths/Further Maths/Economics should be fine for both.

Your work placement is probably not worth mentioning. BMO could be depending on how well you scored.

Both are first class institutions so choose your poison. As a general rule of thumb it's easier to get an offer from Cambridge but much harder to meet it.

Best advice I can give you for interview is to start practising some higher level Maths as early as possible (now). I personally found STEP I extremely useful for this purpose and it meant I was much better prepared when it came time to getting ready for STEP II and III.
Reply 6019
Hi!I have just received my AS results and I'm hoping to Maths at Cambridge, which I'm aware has applicants, like the people in this thread were, with relatively high UMS. My scores are as follows:
C1: 98
C2:100
S1: 98
M1:96
FP1: 97
D1: 100
S2: 90
M2: 83
I am happy with the top 6 (in spite of the silly mistakes dropping me off 100) but my school let us opt in to sit 2 extra modules (S2 and M2). Unfortunately, my M2 score is a lot lower than I expected considering I was one of the strongest in M2 in my class (I hope to get it remarked for the sake of my FM grade). Will this rogue module be a detriment to my application and make me a uncompetitive applicant for Mathematics? And, did anyone else in the thread have rogue module scores when they applied and how was this treated?

My average is still above 95 and I am predicted 4A* in Maths, Further Maths, Physics and Chemistry. Would I have a chance of being selected for interview and, if so, given a strong interview performance, could I make an offer?

Thanks in advance!
(edited 7 years ago)

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