STEP Maths I, II, III 1988 solutions
Maths exam discussion - share revision tips in preparation for GCSE, A Level and other maths exams and discuss how they went afterwards.
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Re: STEP Maths I, II, III 1988 solutionsI'm probably wrong but to show that the integral lies between 0 and 1 would it not be sufficient to say that(Original post by kabbers)
III/1:
Sketch
I'm not going to bother posting most of the differentiating legwork, there arent too many tricks, its just an algebra bash.
Differentiating (quotient rule is your friend), we get

So we have turning points at x = 0, and x =
Differentiating again, we get

Substituting in values of x for the turning points, we find that x = 0 is a minimum, and the other two maximums.
Noticing the denominator of y, we find that there is an asymptote at x = -1.
And because of the exponential properties of e^-x, y tends to zero as
y tends to
as
since the numerator remains positive and given the exponenential properties of e^x much greater than the denominator, while the denominator becomes negative.
So the graph will look http://www.thestudentroom.co.uk/show...8&postcount=14
Prove
First note that
Hence we may split the integral into
Consider

![= \displaystyle([-xe^{-x}]^{\infty}_0 + \int^{\infty}_0 e^{-x} dx - \int^{\infty}_0 e^{-x} dx = \displaystyle([-xe^{-x}]^{\infty}_0 + \int^{\infty}_0 e^{-x} dx - \int^{\infty}_0 e^{-x} dx](http://www.thestudentroom.co.uk/latexrender/pictures/5b/5b4fca20e6e71f65d75afb00c3cd8e47.png)

Now consider
I posit the inequality
for x > 0



So our inequality holds.
So:

![\displaystyle\int^{\infty}_0 \frac{1}{x+1}e^{-x} dx < [-e^{-x}]^{\infty}_0 \displaystyle\int^{\infty}_0 \frac{1}{x+1}e^{-x} dx < [-e^{-x}]^{\infty}_0](http://www.thestudentroom.co.uk/latexrender/pictures/62/62fd68c7ca3893487576ad6eb32a0e42.png)

Thus
And therefore,
Now notice that the graph of
is greater than 0 for x > 0, and hence so is the infinite integral.
So,
please point out any mistakes
(x^2)(e^-x)/(x + 1) < (x^2)(e^-x)/x = x(e^-x) for 0 < x < infinity
then integrate x(e^-x), which equals 1. Seems a lot simpler? -
Re: STEP Maths I, II, III 1988 solutions
Question 8, STEP III
Spoiler:Show

Therefore the equation of the gradient and normal respectively are:
and 
For the triangle formed by the tangents, the vertices will be the intersection of the tangents. By symmetry we need only compute this for one vertex:

Therefore the area of the triangle of tangents is:

For the triangle formed by normals, the vertices will be the intersection of the normals. Again by symmetry we need only consider one pair:

This gives us an area



As required.
If they are congruent, the area of the triangle will be zero:
Last edited by SimonM; 15-06-2009 at 18:39. -
Re: STEP Maths I, II, III 1988 solutionsSTEP III Q10(Original post by SimonM)
....
Consider the positions of the dogs as time goes on. They will form a square of decreasing side length that rotates about the centre. If we take the position of one of the dogs to be
from the centre, then we see by symmetry that the position of one the next dogs along is
. We can also see that the tangent at any moment goes through the position of the next dog along, so:

let:

let
be the angle between the x axis and the straight line to the point
. Since
and, by trigonometry,
. So, substituting into the RHS and integrating we get:
.
By trigonometry, again,
where r is the distance from the origin to the point 
is constant so
for some constant
as required.
To generalise to n-dogs held at the vertices of an n-gon it must be noted that the next dog along will have the coordinates of the first dog bur rotated
about the centre of the field i.e:

So, like the previous part,:

let:

let:

Integrating both sides we get:

And now, just like in the previous part:
for some constant
. Letting n=4 we can check and see that it gives the same answer as the first part.
EDIT: Just realised that the final result simplified to the much nicer form that it is currently in.Last edited by ben-smith; 01-09-2011 at 12:37. -
Re: STEP Maths I, II, III 1988 solutionshttp://www.mathshelper.co.uk/oxb.htm(Original post by Dzwx777)
Where can I find the step past papers before 1997? I have been looking for them for days, but all the links do not work now. Can you help me? thanks a lot! -
Re: STEP Maths I, II, III 1988 solutionserm....I have something different....(Original post by insparato)
III/3
is the circle on the complex plane with radius 2 and centre (0,i)
so x^2 + (y - 1)^2 = 2
and therefore in paramatrised form


I've omitted sketches however I have described them in sufficient detail to make an easy sketch if one chooses.
(i)










Okay so its a circle of radius
and the centre is (1,0) [/latex]
(ii)
If z = x + iy and is real then y must = 0
so




-u + vx - 1 must = 0 (this is important bit on)
so



Now from before



so


So in the W plane, when z is real, you get a circle centre(0,0) with radius 1
(iii)
if z = x + iy and z is imaginary then x = 0












Wahey! wtf ? I'm sure i got something different when jotting it down, something that made sense! hmm have i gone wrong somewhere? I think I'm doing the right method. -
Re: STEP Maths I, II, III 1988 solutionsAlternative solution for part (b)(Original post by nota bene)
I/9
i)
Recall that
, now we can use this to integrate by parts.


Putting in the limits gives
So 
ii)
Let 
So the integral becomes
Going back to x we have





