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Jan 08 PHY6 PAPER
Hi, for quesion 2 a ii. The question asks you to prove the that T is independant of V.
The proof in the book uses D to - 2 (pie) r Which makes sense cos thas the circumference right?
But the mark scheme sues D as r.
I dont understand how they get the answer. Can someone please explain...Thanks.
The proof in the book uses D to - 2 (pie) r Which makes sense cos thas the circumference right?
But the mark scheme sues D as r.
I dont understand how they get the answer. Can someone please explain...Thanks.
alvlstudentt
Hi, for quesion 2 a ii. The question asks you to prove the that T is independant of V.
The proof in the book uses D to - 2 (pie) r Which makes sense cos thas the circumference right?
But the mark scheme sues D as r.
I dont understand how they get the answer. Can someone please explain...Thanks.
The proof in the book uses D to - 2 (pie) r Which makes sense cos thas the circumference right?
But the mark scheme sues D as r.
I dont understand how they get the answer. Can someone please explain...Thanks.
Can u post the question so it is easier to follow plz?
sORRY, I only have hard copies of the exam papers
Every past paper + Insert + Markscheme
http://www.thestudentroom.co.uk/showthread.php?p=19512953#post19512953
http://www.thestudentroom.co.uk/showthread.php?p=19512953#post19512953
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