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Stats help please (binomial)..

The correction test is 0.038 and 10 randomly selected components define the distribution, the probability that:

-none of the components fail the test?

How do you do this? =\

(edited 13 years ago)

Reply 1

$Avatar for Get me off the £\?%!^@ computer$

Get me off the £\?%!^@ computer

None fail = all 10 pass.
P(pass)=1- P(fail)

Reply 2

Nkhan

Original post by Get me off the £\?%!^@ computer

None fail = all 10 pass.
P(pass)=1- P(fail)

So would that be 10*(0.038)^0 * (1-0.038)^10 = 6.788 (3dp) ?

Reply 3

$Avatar for Get me off the £\?%!^@ computer$

Get me off the £\?%!^@ computer

Original post by Nkhan

So would that be 10*(0.038)^0 * (1-0.038)^10 = 6.788 (3dp) ?

No, the 10 should not be there. There is only one way for all 10 to pass.

Reply 4

Nkhan

Original post by Get me off the £\?%!^@ computer

No, the 10 should not be there. There is only one way for all 10 to pass.

So its just 0.038)^0 * (1-0.038)^10 ?

Reply 5

$Avatar for Get me off the £\?%!^@ computer$

Get me off the £\?%!^@ computer

Yes.

Reply 6

Nkhan

Original post by Get me off the £\?%!^@ computer

Yes.

ahh okays thanks x

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