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I can't believe I got a warning for my last post :O

I did physics at university :tongue:
Thoughts?

Original post by Naadirah21
Hey everyone, I would be very grateful if someone could answer my question - why do Copper wires have lower resistance than those made out of Iron? Also, is Copper a chemically reactive element? I posted one of these questions a while back and received no reply. Currently studying Physics at AS Level...

Thank you!


First question: Let's do this the "AS" physics way.

Because we only concern metals here, so I am not going to mention semiconductors and insulators.

Resistance of metal is mainly due to the "vibration" of metal ions arises from thermal energy, which will cause a destructive interference with the electron waves (recall wave-particle duality), and thus the electrons carry less energy so there is resistance.

Different metal ions have different size, different amplitude of vibrations and probably different frequency in same temperature, so different metal has different resistance.

Second question: It really depends on how you define reactive. It is not the upper half in the metal reactivity series so I won't consider it reactive.
Reply 923
Original post by agostino981
First question: Let's do this the "AS" physics way.

Because we only concern metals here, so I am not going to mention semiconductors and insulators.

Resistance of metal is mainly due to the "vibration" of metal ions arises from thermal energy, which will cause a destructive interference with the electron waves (recall wave-particle duality), and thus the electrons carry less energy so there is resistance.

Different metal ions have different size, different amplitude of vibrations and probably different frequency in same temperature, so different metal has different resistance.

Second question: It really depends on how you define reactive. It is not the upper half in the metal reactivity series so I won't consider it reactive.


Is alevel physics difficult?


This was posted from my iPhone: Chat with me on Skype! Search: jj.teh
Original post by JackTeh96
Is alevel physics difficult?


This was posted from my iPhone: Chat with me on Skype! Search: jj.teh


It is not difficult if you understand the underlying principles.
There is an inconsistency in my consideration in terms of nuclear fission and the discovery of plutonium: In a nuclear fission a nucleus can be shot with neutrons and so the nucleus is divided. New nucleuses emerge which are new atoms after nuclear fission. During the fission, the energy is released.

And now I want to compare this procedure with the discovery of Plutonium: Plutonium was discovered after Uranium was shot by Deuterium (heavy water) in 1940. I looked at the PSE to find out the atomic numbers of Uranium and Plutonium. Uranium has 92, whereas Plutonium has 94 as atomic number. And that is the point which make me confuse: Normally, the products (new atoms) after a nuclear fission have a lesser atomic number than Uranium. But in this case the number of Plutonium is higher than the one of Uranium. Could it be that it came to a fusion between Uranium and Deuterium instead of a fission?
(edited 11 years ago)
Reply 926
Original post by Kallisto
There is an inconsistency in my consideration in terms of nuclear fission and the discovery of plutonium: In a nuclear fission a nucleus can be shot with neutrons and so the nucleus is divided. New nucleuses emerge which are new atoms after nuclear fission. During the fission, the energy is released.

And now I want to compare this procedure with the discovery of Plutonium: Plutonium was discovered after Uranium was shot by Deuterium (heavy water) in 1940. I looked at the PSE to find out the atomic numbers of Uranium and Plutonium. Uranium has 92, whereas Plutonium has 94 as atomic number. And that is the point which make me confuse: Normally, the products (new atoms) after a nuclear fission have a lesser atomic number than Uranium. But in this case the number of Plutonium is higher than the one of Uranium. Could it be that it came to a fusion between Uranium and Deuterium instead of a fission?

It is fusion. However, to turn Uranium into Plutonium you have to put more energy in than you get out.

This sums it up.
Original post by 3nTr0pY
It is fusion. However, to turn Uranium into Plutonium you have to put more energy in than you get out.


I see. The energy is highest during the fusion and then the energy decreased step by step. That is to say that an exothermic reaction initiate the fusion. Am I right? then thermal energy as one of the reaction product must be emerged, right?
Original post by Kallisto
I see. The energy is highest during the fusion and then the energy decreased step by step. That is to say that an exothermic reaction initiate the fusion. Am I right? then thermal energy as one of the reaction product must be emerged, right?


I thought it was that the energy is required for a larger total mass of the product and that the energy gives out as byproduct is actually from the strong interaction.
Original post by agostino981
I thought it was that the energy is required for a larger total mass of the product and that the energy gives out as byproduct is actually from the strong interaction.


*facepalm to myself* Of course, that makes sense. As Uranium and Deuterium coalesce, their energy have to increase to enable the bond. Otherwise Uranium and Deuterium cannot be coalesced. As far as I know bonds are only possible, if the energy of reactants (or one of them at least) is increased. And then the energy decrease and will emit in the environment. Sorry. That was my bad!
Original post by Kallisto
*As Uranium and Deuterium coalesce, their energy have to increase to enable the bond.

As far as I know bonds are only possible, if the energy of reactants (or one of them at least) is increased.


This is not really about bonding, after all, this is not a chemistry thread.
Original post by agostino981
(...) after all, this is not a chemistry thread.


You are right, I wander from the subject. Another question: All kinds of planets and moons in the universe have gravitation. After Newton's law of gravitation, planets like the earth attract a moon and vice versa. In my consideration, the moon would "fall down" to the earth (because of the higher gravitation), if the moon would have not a centrifugal force to keep the orbit, right?

Based on this view, I think about the sun. Could it be that the Sun apply a gravitation to the planets and the planets to the sun? then the planets apply a centrifugal force to keep the solar system.
Original post by Kallisto
You are right, I wander from the subject. Another question: All kinds of planets and moons in the universe have gravitation. After Newton's law of gravitation, planets like the earth attract a moon and vice versa. In my consideration, the moon would "fall down" to the earth (because of the higher gravitation), if the moon would have not a centrifugal force to keep the orbit, right?


It is centripetal force. Centrifugal force is a fictitious force due to non-inertial frame.

If the moon does not have tangential velocity as an initial condition, it would indeed collide with the Earth.

Original post by Kallisto
Based on this view, I think about the sun. Could it be that the Sun apply a gravitation to the planets and the planets to the sun? then the planets apply a centrifugal force to keep the solar system.


Gravitation attracts both objects, so the Sun is exerting force on planets and vice versa. However, there exists centripetal acceleration because the planets are undergoing circular motion (not really circular, it can be proved that the orbit is not circular apart from perturbation due to other planets), thus the planets were not just attracted towards the Sun, but orbiting around it. Hence, there is a solar system.
(edited 11 years ago)
I have difficulties with the definition of gravitational potential. To be exactly I didn't understand what it means in practice. Anyone who can tell me the sense of the gravitation potential? thanks!
Original post by Kallisto
I have difficulties with the definition of gravitational potential. To be exactly I didn't understand what it means in practice. Anyone who can tell me the sense of the gravitation potential? thanks!


in general if you have a force field the potential is defined as F=-grad(phi)
Original post by agostino981
It is centripetal force. Centrifugal force is a fictitious force due to non-inertial frame.
If the moon does not have tangential velocity as an initial condition, it would indeed collide with the Earth.
(...)


I see... in other words: it is just the velocity of the moon in the orbit which pretend that the moon fall down to the earth? then the velocity must expend centripetal force to keep in the orbit, right?

Original post by ben-smith
in general if you have a force field the potential is defined as
F=-grad(phi)


I guess I have got the picture. The gravitational potential is just a physical term, right?
But when this physical term is used? to explain the gravity of an object in a gravitation field?
(edited 11 years ago)
Original post by Kallisto
I see... in other words: it is just the velocity of the moon in the orbit which pretend that the moon fall down to the earth? then the velocity must expend centripetal force to keep in the orbit, right?


If you require an A-level explanation, speed remains constant, velocity changes because direction changes and that gravitational force is equal to centripetal force. Note that there is a reaction force of centripetal force on the moon such that it equals to the gravitational force.

If you require a more detailed explanation, you don't need to consider centripetal force at all. What you need to do is to solve the differential equation

d2rdt2=GMr3r\frac{d^2 \vec{r}}{dt^2}=-\frac{GM}{|\vec{r}|^3}\vec{r}

which is just the definition of Newtonian gravitational acceleration.

Original post by Kallisto
I guess I have got the picture. The gravitational potential is just a physical term, right?
But when this physical term is used? to explain the gravity of an object in a gravitation field?


The term Φ\Phi in g=Φ\vec{g}=-\vec{\nabla}\Phi is the Newtonian gravitational potential, which is used to describe Newtonian gravitation. Like a lot of other mathematical models, this is just a way to model the gravity. It is quite difficult to "explain" gravity in a fundamental way, as it is a fundamental interaction itself.
I don't require neither an A-level nor a detailed explanation. I am/was just curious and want to discuss with people who are interest in physics. Strange, eh? :biggrin:

Although you have explained my questions well, there is another one which I have due to your comment:

Original post by agostino981
(...) Note that there is a reaction force of centripetal force on the moon such that it equals to the gravitational force.
(...)


I understand why centripetal force and gravitational force exist in this connection. But I don't understand why reaction force come into being. Would you be kind enough to explain me this connection too?

And then there is another question in terms of astrophysics:
Could it be that the orbits of the planets are inertial systems? In my consideration, the planets have their own (constant) speed in their own orbit to go round the sun. Then the whole solar system would be nothing more than an inertial system.
Original post by Kallisto
I don't require neither an A-level nor a detailed explanation. I am/was just curious and want to discuss with people who are interest in physics. Strange, eh? :biggrin:


Physics is not for physicists only :P

Original post by Kallisto

I understand why centripetal force and gravitational force exist in this connection. But I don't understand why reaction force come into being. Would you be kind enough to explain me this connection too?


Take a look at the wiki article about Reactive centrifugal force

Make an analogy where the string can be thought as the gravitational force.

Original post by Kallisto
And then there is another question in terms of astrophysics:
Could it be that the orbits of the planets are inertial systems? In my consideration, the planets have their own (constant) speed in their own orbit to go round the sun. Then the whole solar system would be nothing more than an inertial system.


I am going to assume that you are trying to say that the planets are in inertial frame or not.

Without considering perturbative effects from other celestial bodies, a planet orbiting the sun is following a geodesic with respect to the (metric of) space-time. According to theory of relativity, a body in geodesic is in inertial frame.
(edited 11 years ago)

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