Why do Englanders rule the world and not for example the French or Spanish?

While the number of Spanish or French people in the year 1700 were the same as the number of Englanders???

( i mean, whole the A world know English and almost nobody German )

And for example whole the continent America speak the English language....

This i never completely understand,..

Anyone?

(edited 11 years ago)

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wut

South america is mainly Spanish, and some parts of Canada are French.

I think it was once very close, but basically we ended up winning the most wars. We don't rule the world, but that's just how it worked out. Also, we had a very good Navy and shipbuilding history (though granted so did France and Spain). I'm not an American history expert, but my impression is that between us, the French, Spanish and Dutch it could have gone any way.

Either that, or we all wanted to get away from Britain...

Reply 3

Mockery

Trafalgar kind of sums it all up :smile:

Reply 4

Ronove

We're not called 'Englanders' in English. :facepalm2:

Reply 5

Baines3

The ruling of the world was decided over a game of Risk in the 1700's. 'Englanders' won, and that is why they rule the world.

Reply 6

MrHappy_J

Pick up a history book??

Reply 7

IlexBlue

I'm going to guess you're French, Spanish or German.

Reply 8

username133326

Original post by Octohedral

Not so much the Dutch... they were content with their small but economically lucrative islands and such.

Reply 9

Courtney.

A lot of americans were originally from Ireland and migrated there during the famines. Other americans are descendants of the native americans who spoke a different language. Englanders dont rule the world, we just have a large empire and support many other countries. Yes a lot of europe has english or french as their second language but elsewhere the second language is french german spanish or chinese, if that isnt their first

Reply 10

edwinemanuelposse

Original post by Ronove

We're not called 'Englanders' in English. :facepalm2:

sorry i am from abroad.... my mistake.. haha...

Reply 11

edwinemanuelposse

Original post by Barden

Not so much the Dutch... they were content with their small but economically lucrative islands and such.

This what u say i doubt hey, i know that the dutch sold America to the UK for a few coins but.... but.... but.. damm what was i gonne say, damm i am dutch.....

Oke but then, the UK killed all the indians in native america and not the dutch,,,, and now its ur turn to speak,, ( ha ha )

Reply 12

edwinemanuelposse

Original post by IlexBlue

I'm going to guess you're French, Spanish or German.

yes but no, i am half dutch half german, and i wanne ( when i ever get rich ) move to or the UK of french......

Reply 13

username133326

Original post by edwinemanuelposse

The Dutch were probably even more reliant on their navy than Britain in the early days of colonialism... they simply didn't have the man-power to hold on to large tracts of land and had the foresight not to try, which is the mistake the French made.

Reply 14

holmes221

Original post by edwinemanuelposse

Well with america and canada the english settled in huge numbers in the new world, where as the french were much fewer in number and didn't settle on land as much as the british. Alot of British colonies/territories/islands were also simply brought out from spanish, dutch who couldnt afford to keep them.

Reply 15

edwinemanuelposse

Original post by MrHappy_J

Pick up a history book??

well a* there are a zilion history books and i never would no which is the right one to choose,

and b*

i ask an intelligent audience in TSR UK , and 90% of all the time i get intelligent answers.. i like it that way...

Reply 16

edwinemanuelposse

Original post by holmes221

Yes but are u sure that the number of French people were less then the UK people? the size of the land of both two are almost the same....

Reply 17

misslisakit

Original post by edwinemanuelposse

Yes but are u surekit that the number of French people were less then the UK people? the size of the land of both two are almost the same....

Trafalgar kind of sums it all up

(edited 11 years ago)

Reply 18

maryamlondon

Original post by edwinemanuelposse

English, Spanish and French all have an empire which consists of countries they colonised.... England does not rule the world, they all played an equal part in colonising nations, Portugal: Angola; Brazil, Spain: Peru; Colombia; Ecuador, France: Ivory coast; Haiti; Cameroon. These nations colonised many more countries stretching from east asia, to pretty much whole of Africa, South and North America, plus Australasia. Basically the whole world... Because these countries have their "independance" now people don't realise the extent that these nations colonised the world.