Germany 1922 French Invasion of the Ruhr

I personally think that the French invaded the Ruhr driven by bitterness and jealousy at Germany's industry. However, their invasion did provoke German passivity so it can be argued that if the French didn't invade then the workers would not have gone on strike, etc. Don't forget that inflation was an underlying factor and the Invasion of the Ruhr simply made inflation transpire into hyperinflation. I would always link the Treaty of Versailles back to one of the major causes for hyperinflation since Germany had so much land etc taken away from them and they simply could not afford the reparations. But of course the fact that Germany's biggest source of industry had been brought to a standstill, due to German passivity, had huge conseqences and hyperinflation was certainly one of them. The German economy had been spiralling downhill ever since the war, but even Europe as a whole, and America were struggling (Wall Street Crash etc). But France invading the Ruhr was an enormous display of power for the French who were bitter at how far German's industrialisation had come, especially as France and Belgium were somewhat left in ruins after the war. But I think that Germany had no choice but to print more money, as their currency had become literally worthless and the Germans could not afford to live.

(I hope this helps, it's been 2/3 years now since I sat my GCSE Nazi Germany paper. But I can help with anything if you need me.)

Thank you so much for that!
I'm just a bit confused because my history teacher told me that the french invaded the ruhr because Germany wasn't paying reparations so they took their main industrial area in Germany.. so did the French invasion of the Ruhr take place before major hyperinflation in germany then?