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Original post by BarackObama
Ooh, that's a good one. The idea of an adult having a relationship with a child revolts me, and it is universally morally wrong*, but let's just look at this from an "attraction" perspective. More and more people are now coming out and saying that sexuality is not a choice, and that it's basically just down to genes and such. Why do most of us accept that, but not that attraction to children can be natural, too?


I would agree with that. Attraction to children is presumably not a choice. But acting on that attraction is wrong.
Original post by michellehall
I see your point. Personally I don't think 16 year olds are mature enough either


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Someone attracted to a 16 yr old would be an ephebophile and I think it'd be statuory rape as opposed to child molestation!
Original post by Chief Wiggum
I see.

In that case, I don't see how anyone could possibly justify an adult being in a relationship with a child of such a young age. It is clear they are both mentally and physically immature, and would be completely incapable of properly consenting.

Slightly offtopic, do you agree with trying to 'cure' them using methods that are now deemed inhumane for homosexuals?
Original post by keromedic
Someone attracted to a 16 yr old would be an ephebophile and I think it'd be statuory rape as opposed to child molestation!


Agreed
Pretty offence question and I'm not even a gay man! What you are suggesting ( even if you don't realise you are doing so) is that gay sex is as sexually deviant as shagging children. Sex between gay men is like sex between heterosexuals, consenting. Paedophillia is totally different, it is an exploitation of children who are too young to give their consent to sex legally by adult men/women who are old enough to know what they are doing is wrong.
Reply 25
Original post by ChocoCoatedLemons
But hey, just because you're attracted to someone does not make it in any way acceptable to rape them.


Of course. However, what's a peadophile to do if, say, he genuinely only likes pre-pubescent girls and society (and most ethics philosophers, tbh) deem it unacceptable for him to actually have a relationship with the girl he loves?

^ HYPOTHETICAL SITUATION.

Also, the vast majority of rapists are heterosexual men, right, but none of us are even thinking about whether or not heterosexuality is "wrong" or "gross".

^ DEVIL'S ADVOCATE.
Reply 26
Original post by keromedic
Slightly offtopic, do you agree with trying to 'cure' them using methods that are now deemed inhumane for homosexuals?


Yes! That's the kind of thinking I was looking for.

Seriously, think about it. A few decades ago hell, even now, in 76 countries we treat homosexuality as a crime. Now, we judge anybody who thinks that homosexuality is a crime. (Well, by 'we' I mean the West.)

Are we heading in the same direction for peadophilia? Or will some sexual preferences stay taboo for good?
Original post by BarackObama


Also, the vast majority of rapists are heterosexual men, right, but none of us are even thinking about whether or not heterosexuality is "wrong" or "gross".

^ DEVIL'S ADVOCATE.


But rape always is wrong. Difference being a heterosexual man could (in theory) have consented legal sex. A paedophile couldn't
Original post by keromedic
Slightly offtopic, do you agree with trying to 'cure' them using methods that are now deemed inhumane for homosexuals?


I don't really know anything about it tbh.
Reply 29
Original post by Danny_Girl01
Pretty offence question and I'm not even a gay man!


Well, I'm bisexual. Big deal. Why should your sexuality determine whether or not you find this question offensive? I merely asked why. My question was worded relatively precisely, and I tried to make it as inoffensive as possible. I hoped that it was pretty clear from my wording that I am not an advocate for peadophilia, and neither am I homophobic. At all.

Apparently not. :dontknow: :egg:
Reply 30
Original post by michellehall
But rape always is wrong. Difference being a heterosexual man could (in theory) have consented legal sex. A paedophile couldn't


Of course. Imagine, however, a peadophile who is forced into celibacy because his sexual preferences are deemed inappropriate (i.e. he never has sex with anybody, so, in other words, no rape*). Is he still "mentally disturbed" for having such a sexual preference?

What I mean is, nobody considers a heterosexual man "mentally disturbed" unless he was a rapist. However, some consider homosexual men to be mentally disturbed no matter whether they've raped someone or not. Most consider peadophilic men to be mentally disturbed no matter whether they've raped someone or not. What I'm asking is, do you think this is a fair approach?

* = for now I'll assume that you all think that having sex with a consenting 12 year old counts as rape? (I agree, but I'm just clarifying)
Reply 31
Original post by Chief Wiggum
I don't really know anything about it tbh.


Well, let me summarise: homosexuality used to be classified as a mental illness (along the lines of schizophrenia, kleptomania, anorexia, etc) and a criminal offense. Peadophilia is still classed as a mental illness, I believe (if not, then definitely as a criminal offense).

On that note: is peadophilia defined as an attraction to children or having sexual relations with children? I've Googled and it seems nobody can make up their mind, really.
(edited 10 years ago)
Reply 32
Original post by Amelia-Babe

do children? innocent children who don't know how babies are born?


I'm pretty sure that most kids over the age of 8 these days know what sex is. Most peadophiles go for kids between the ages of 9 and 12, I believe (I don't know, I'm just basing this off Lolita and a few news stories I've read). So yeah, they do. Whether or not they understand the implications of sex is obviously a different matter altogether, but you clearly weren't asking about that.

it's the fact you think having a relationship with a child could be okay, or could be justified.


Where exactly did I say "it's okay to go f-ck children"?

please go and sit in a corner and think things through you dumb ****.


That's what they call an ad hominem argument, sweetheart. Not cool.
Original post by BarackObama
Of course. Imagine, however, a peadophile who is forced into celibacy because his sexual preferences are deemed inappropriate (i.e. he never has sex with anybody, so, in other words, no rape*). Is he still "mentally disturbed" for having such a sexual preference?

What I mean is, nobody considers a heterosexual man "mentally disturbed" unless he was a rapist. However, some consider homosexual men to be mentally disturbed no matter whether they've raped someone or not. Most consider peadophilic men to be mentally disturbed no matter whether they've raped someone or not. What I'm asking is, do you think this is a fair approach?

* = for now I'll assume that you all think that having sex with a consenting 12 year old counts as rape? (I agree, but I'm just clarifying)


I don't really know the answer to this. Maybe because children are not socially or genetically supposed to have sex and even a sexual attraction to them is abnormal in both senses ie it is both socially unacceptable and biologically implausible to procreate. I don't know?


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Reply 34
Original post by michellehall
I don't really know the answer to this. Maybe because children are not socially or genetically supposed to have sex and even a sexual attraction to them is abnormal in both senses ie it is both socially unacceptable and biologically implausible to procreate. I don't know?


Socially, yes, absolutely but if you think about it, homosexuals aren't genetically/biologically supposed to have sex either (no procreation, which is necessary for the survival of the species, etc).

Once again, I'm sorry if I'm coming off as offensive and/or annoying. I'm honestly just trying to debate a topic I've never seen discussed before.
Reply 35
By attraction, I'd say no it worse per say than any other as it's presumably something beyond the persons control. I can't think why any sane person would want to have it. I'd actually feel increbily sorry for anyone in this situation, espcially since the stigma attached would make telling people/getting help incredibly difficult.

In actions, it's always wrong as is any action where one party is unable to give consent. This extends to heterosexuality/homosexuality/bisexuality etc... I'd say it's worse in pedophilia as theres potential for more harm both emotionaly and physically. Where as something like rape is would be a horrific thing for a adult, at least they have the capacity to deal with it in a way a child couldn't. The waters are murkier when it gets to the whole ephebephilia thing, because of different maturation rates and so on. Personally I'd still disagree with that but in a slightly different way.

Someone mentioned treatments, I don't agree with forcing someone to go through one or trying to 'cure' them (presumably it's like every other sexuality and unchageable) I do however think there should be options availbe for help since it can only really have a negative impact on someones life. and help should be there to help them cope with it (and in doing so maybe even would prevent some offences)

Reading back it all sounds very buisness like. Basically, I can see why people would be offended by the question and tbh so was I little when I read it (and I'm straight too) but I think I can see what your trying to ask. I think ultiamtely it comes down to consent and action. An attraction isn't wrong per say, its the actions what count, and in the case of pedophilia the other party is never able to consent where as in homosexuality (and heterosexuality and everything else involving adults) theres a good chance they can.


Eta: Just seen your point about homosexuals not supposed to be having sex and I think the point is an attraction to either male or female is required to procreation but never children. Lets say you go off the whole hormone fetal development thing, its plausible to see why a slight change could result in change in attraction to the same sex but not to a child as it's never needed.
(edited 10 years ago)
Reply 36
Original post by Chihiro94
By attraction, I'd say no it worse per say than any other as it's presumably something beyond the persons control. I can't think why any sane person would want to have it. I'd actually feel increbily sorry for anyone in this situation, espcially since the stigma attached would make telling people/getting help incredibly difficult.

In actions, it's always wrong as is any action where one party is unable to give consent. This extends to heterosexuality/homosexuality/bisexuality etc... I'd say it's worse in pedophilia as theres potential for more harm both emotionaly and physically. Where as something like rape is would be a horrific thing for a adult, at least they have the capacity to deal with it in a way a child couldn't. The waters are murkier when it gets to the whole ephebephilia thing, because of different maturation rates and so on. Personally I'd still disagree with that but in a slightly different way.

Someone mentioned treatments, I don't agree with forcing someone to go through one or trying to 'cure' them (presumably it's like every other sexuality and unchageable) I do however think there should be options availbe for help since it can only really have a negative impact on someones life. and help should be there to help them cope with it (and in doing so maybe even would prevent some offences)

Reading back it all sounds very buisness like. Basically, I can see why people would be offended by the question and tbh so was I little when I read it (and I'm straight too) but I think I can see what your trying to ask. I think ultiamtely it comes down to consent and action. An attraction isn't wrong per say, its the actions what count, and in the case of pedophilia the other party is never able to consent where as in homosexuality (and heterosexuality and everything else involving adults) theres a good chance they can.


You're wonderful, thank you for understanding me. Agree with everything you said.

Honestly, I was not trying to offend anybody. That's why I stuck with a formal tone for this one, to show that I'm looking at this just as a theoretical discussion, not as a debate of personal views. That's all.

If you got offended somehow, then trust me, that was not my intention.
Original post by BarackObama
Socially, yes, absolutely but if you think about it, homosexuals aren't genetically/biologically supposed to have sex either (no procreation, which is necessary for the survival of the species, etc).

Once again, I'm sorry if I'm coming off as offensive and/or annoying. I'm honestly just trying to debate a topic I've never seen discussed before.


I know this is what has messed up most arguments in my head.

I think it is viewed as wrong to want to have sex with something that cannot know what it is doing, whether you act on it or not. The same with beastiality (which by the way is far more comparable to paedophilia in today's society than homosexuality)


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Original post by Chihiro94
By attraction, I'd say no it worse per say than any other as it's presumably something beyond the persons control. I can't think why any sane person would want to have it. I'd actually feel increbily sorry for anyone in this situation, espcially since the stigma attached would make telling people/getting help incredibly difficult.

In actions, it's always wrong as is any action where one party is unable to give consent. This extends to heterosexuality/homosexuality/bisexuality etc... I'd say it's worse in pedophilia as theres potential for more harm both emotionaly and physically. Where as something like rape is would be a horrific thing for a adult, at least they have the capacity to deal with it in a way a child couldn't. The waters are murkier when it gets to the whole ephebephilia thing, because of different maturation rates and so on. Personally I'd still disagree with that but in a slightly different way.

Someone mentioned treatments, I don't agree with forcing someone to go through one or trying to 'cure' them (presumably it's like every other sexuality and unchageable) I do however think there should be options availbe for help since it can only really have a negative impact on someones life. and help should be there to help them cope with it (and in doing so maybe even would prevent some offences)

Reading back it all sounds very buisness like. Basically, I can see why people would be offended by the question and tbh so was I little when I read it (and I'm straight too) but I think I can see what your trying to ask. I think ultiamtely it comes down to consent and action. An attraction isn't wrong per say, its the actions what count, and in the case of pedophilia the other party is never able to consent where as in homosexuality (and heterosexuality and everything else involving adults) theres a good chance they can.


Eta: Just seen your point about homosexuals not supposed to be having sex and I think the point is an attraction to either male or female is required to procreation but never children. Lets say you go off the whole hormone fetal development thing, its plausible to see why a slight change could result in change in attraction to the same sex but not to a child as it's never needed.


Bravo. Perfect. Will rep when I'm on the site and not the app


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Reply 39
Original post by michellehall
I think it is viewed as wrong to want to have sex with something that cannot know what it is doing, whether you act on it or not. The same with beastiality (which by the way is far more comparable to paedophilia in today's society than homosexuality)


Smashed it. Excellent point.

I did actually mean to bring up homosexuality as a contrast to peadophilia (not comparison), though. As in, it can be viewed in the same way as peadophilia, yet we treat it differently.

You're so right about the "cannot know what it is doing" part, though. Thank you.

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