Hello,
I am aware that the Practice Statment of 1966 allowed the House of Lords to overrule previous decisions made within the court, however, since the creation of the Supreme Court, is the Supreme Court bound by the Practice Statment or 'Practice Rules'?
My lecturer seems convinced that the Supreme Court in no longer bound by the 1966 Practice Statment, but by the Practice Rules. I have searched the internet and multiple revision sources, they seem to suggest that there is no such thing as the 'Practice Rules'. However, my lecutrer suggests they are mistaken.
Please can you clarify this?
Thanks