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Condom percentage of failure

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Original post by BeanofJelly
According to PEARL, if 100 women having regular sex for a year use only condoms, around 15 of them will fall pregnant in that year.

However, that doesn't take account of the way that they are used. With "perfect use", the figure becomes 2/100 women pregnant per year. Bear in mind though, most people will assume they fall into the "perfect use" category, yet the actual figures show them false. Have you got a reason to believe you'll use condoms perfectly when it obviously isn't that usual to do so? I couldn't even say which criteria constitute "perfect" use.

Personally, I think condoms clearly aren't suitable as an alone contraceptive if you are having regular sex over a length of time. As someone said, in comparison to using "pulling out" as your sole method of contraception, condoms are only slightly more effective.

There is a decent (if small) chance of pregnancy using condoms alone, and where I have friends or acquaintances who seem quite sensible, yet still end up accidentally pregnant - it's always that they've used a single method of contraception, usually condoms sometimes the pill.

Here's a wiki about PEARL

Looking at the table I would only use a "blue" rated contraception alone. Otherwise I would combine hormonal and barrier. If barrier was the only contraceptive available to me, I would combine with rhythm method or pulling out.


What's "regular sex"?
Reply 21
Original post by TSA
What's "regular sex"?


Sex on a regular basis.

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Original post by gemmam
Sex on a regular basis.

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I meant what classifies as regular sex. 4 times a week? 7 times a week? 20 times a week? All day every day sex?
Original post by TSA
What's "regular sex"?


Honestly, I don't know how they have defined it.

The frequency with which you have sex is going to effect the likelihood of pregnancy on any given contraceptive, but probably not in a directly proportionate way - as it's only mainly the sex had during the window around ovulation (let's call this "an opportunity for pregnancy") which makes a difference. Then again, the more time sex is had within this window, the more chances for condom failure (I'd imagine there is a more directly proportionate relationship for condoms, than there is for hormonal methods).

I guess "regularly enough to be having sex at each or most opportunities for pregnancy" is probably the measure used. So if you are only having sex every 2 weeks, you're often going to miss the opportunity for pregnancy (maybe 50% of the time you won't have sex within the window). If only every 4 weeks or less, more likely than not to miss it.

Probably about once a week or more is regular enough that you are hitting every or most opportunities for pregnancy. I would guess that is roughly what would be considered regular, but for all I know - the PEARL index defines "regular" as something different, or simply measured long term couples without asking them how frequently they had sex.
(edited 9 years ago)

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