why does Shakespeare use words like thee and thou in his poems?

Thanks. Also, what's the difference between Old English and Middle English?

Middle English.

Well put it this way:
Hwæt! We Gardena in geardagum,
þeodcyninga, þrym gefrunon,
hu ða æþelingas ellen fremedon.
Oft Scyld Scefing sceaþena þreatum,
5monegum mægþum, meodosetla ofteah,
egsode eorlas. Syððan ærest wearð
feasceaft funden, he þæs frofre gebad,
weox under wolcnum, weorðmyndum þah,
oðþæt him æghwylc þara ymbsittendra
10ofer hronrade hyran scolde,
gomban gyldan. þæt wæs god cyning!

That's Old English. Middle English is a bit different.

Ah I understand. Just a 'bit' different to Middle English. Thanks!

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Haha lol disregard that. I got middle and early modern confused silly me. Shakespere is early modern. Middle english is different.

Yeah, middle English was more like Chaucer ​et al.

Chaucers a LAD.

I haven't much of his work but I do know that he made some very amusing puns (which I probably can't post here).

Shakespeare wrote in Middle English, not Old English. Many of the words he did use are, however, quite obsolete.

There's a huge authorship battle going on at the moment and I'm not convinced that Shakespeare actually wrote any of his work, there's very little evidence to prove that Shakespeare was educated to he degree required to write his sonnets, and there's a lot of conjecture surrounding his travels. Even the Stratfordians no longer believe he visited Italy despite writing 106 scenes set in Italy, 800 general references to Italy, 400 references to Rome, 52 to Venice, 34 to Naples, 25 to Milan, 23 to Florence, 22 to Padova, 20 to Verona, 9 to Mantua along with numerous smaller towns and settlements. Under close scrutiny, not a great deal of Shakespeare's life actually adds up. I honestly think Shakespeare was a nom de plume.

There's very little evidence (none, in fact) that proves Shakespeare couldn't have been educated to write sonnets. This is because his life was not documented as readily as people alive today are.

Forgive me if I'm incorrect, but I don't think J.K. Rowling visited Hogwarts either. Which must mean she couldn't have written Harry Potter either I suspect.

There's very little evidence (none, in fact) that proves Shakespeare couldn't have been educated to write sonnets. This is because his life was not documented as readily as people alive today are.

Forgive me if I'm incorrect, but I don't think J.K. Rowling visited Hogwarts either. Which must mean she couldn't have written Harry Potter either I suspect.