The Student Room Group

Abelian Proof

If x,yG,xy=x1y1\forall x,y \in G, xy=x^{-1}y^{-1}, prove that GG must be abelian.

My proof goes something like this:
xy=x1y1    x2y2=exy = x^{-1}y^{-1} \iff x^2y^2 = e, but note also that yx=y1x1    y2x2=eyx = y^{-1}x^{-1} \iff y^2x^2 = e. So that x2y2=y2x2.x^2y^2 = y^2x^2.

But I have a sinking feeling in my stomach that doesn't prove that GG is abelian. :frown: It needs to reduce down to xy=yxxy = yx, doesn't it?

How can I go about this proof? :smile:
Original post by Zacken
If x,yG,xy=x1y1\forall x,y \in G, xy=x^{-1}y^{-1}, prove that GG must be abelian.

My proof goes something like this:
xy=x1y1    x2y2=exy = x^{-1}y^{-1} \iff x^2y^2 = e, but note also that yx=y1x1    y2x2=eyx = y^{-1}x^{-1} \iff y^2x^2 = e. So that x2y2=y2x2.x^2y^2 = y^2x^2.

But I have a sinking feeling in my stomach that doesn't prove that GG is abelian. :frown: It needs to reduce down to xy=yxxy = yx, doesn't it?

How can I go about this proof? :smile:

You're quite right: you've shown that products of squares must commute, but not that products of all elements must commute.

In fact, this kind of group is *very* specific. The first thing you should do when seeing rules like this is to check some special cases. What happens when x=y? When x=y^{-1}? When x=e?
Reply 2
Original post by Smaug123
You're quite right: you've shown that products of squares must commute, but not that products of all elements must commute.

In fact, this kind of group is *very* specific. The first thing you should do when seeing rules like this is to check some special cases. What happens when x=y? When x=y^{-1}? When x=e?


x=yx2=x2x=y \Rightarrow x^2 = x^{-2}

x=y1y1y=yy1=ex=y^{-1} \Rightarrow y^{-1}y = yy^{-1} = e

x=ey=y1y2=ex=e \Rightarrow y = y^{-1} \Rightarrow y^2 = e

I'm not really seeing how that gives any intuitive help. :redface:
Original post by Zacken
x=yx2=x2x=y \Rightarrow x^2 = x^{-2}

x=y1y1y=yy1=ex=y^{-1} \Rightarrow y^{-1}y = yy^{-1} = e

x=ey=y1y2=ex=e \Rightarrow y = y^{-1} \Rightarrow y^2 = e

I'm not really seeing how that gives any intuitive help. :redface:

Indeed, the first two do not help. But the third is a really really strong condition on GG: every element is self-inverse. (That is, G is a "boolean group".) Among other things, if the group is finite, it is therefore of order a power of 2.

I'm trying to think of a non-magic way to show that the group is abelian. The proof follows in one line, but the correct expression to consider is a bit unmotivated. Give me a minute :smile:
Original post by Zacken
x=yx2=x2x=y \Rightarrow x^2 = x^{-2}

x=y1y1y=yy1=ex=y^{-1} \Rightarrow y^{-1}y = yy^{-1} = e

x=ey=y1y2=ex=e \Rightarrow y = y^{-1} \Rightarrow y^2 = e

I'm not really seeing how that gives any intuitive help. :redface:

OK, motivation: we'll go for a contradiction. Suppose xyyxxy \not = y x. What can we deduce?
Reply 5
Original post by Smaug123
OK, motivation: we'll go for a contradiction. Suppose xyyxxy \not = y x. What can we deduce?


We can deduce that y1xyx1ey^{-1}xyx^{-1} \neq e? :redface:
Original post by Zacken
We can deduce that y1xyx1ey^{-1}xyx^{-1} \neq e? :redface:

And given that x,yx, y are self-inverse…?
Reply 7
Original post by Smaug123
And given that x,yx, y are self-inverse…?


Then y1x1y1x1=yxyx=(yx)2ey^{-1}x^{-1}y^{-1}x^{-1} = yxyx = (yx)^2 \neq e?
Original post by Zacken
Then y1x1y1x1=yxyx=(yx)2ey^{-1}x^{-1}y^{-1}x^{-1} = yxyx = (yx)^2 \neq e?

Precisely. That's a contradiction.

More neatly stated (without contradiction): xy=(xy)1=y1x1=yxx y = (xy)^{-1} = y^{-1} x^{-1} = y x.
Reply 9
Original post by Smaug123
Precisely. That's a contradiction.

More neatly stated (without contradiction): xy=(xy)1=y1x1=yxx y = (xy)^{-1} = y^{-1} x^{-1} = y x.


Oh my god! I'm so dense. That was so obvious. Thank you! :eek:
Original post by Zacken
Oh my god! I'm so dense. That was so obvious. Thank you! :eek:

No problem - it's really simple if you spot the right expression to consider, but that takes a bit of intuition. Contradiction often reduces the amount of intuition you need, but tends to produce a less neat proof.
Reply 11
Original post by Smaug123
No problem - it's really simple if you spot the right expression to consider, but that takes a bit of intuition. Contradiction often reduces the amount of intuition you need, but tends to produce a less neat proof.


Wait a second, re-reading your proof, I can't see why xy=(xy)1xy = (xy)^{-1}. We're given that xy=x1y1xy = x^{-1}y^{-1} but (xy)1=y1x1x1y1(xy)^{-1} = y^{-1}x^{-1} \neq x^{-1}y^{-1} unless we assume G is abelian? :confused:
Original post by Zacken
Wait a second, re-reading your proof, I can't see why xy=(xy)1xy = (xy)^{-1}. We're given that xy=x1y1xy = x^{-1}y^{-1} but (xy)1=y1x1x1y1(xy)^{-1} = y^{-1}x^{-1} \neq x^{-1}y^{-1} unless we assume G is abelian? :confused:

xyGx y \in G, and we've already shown that for all gGg \in G, g=g1g = g^{-1}.
Reply 13
Original post by Smaug123
xyGx y \in G, and we've already shown that for all gGg \in G, g=g1g = g^{-1}.


Fair enough (xy)1G(xy)^{-1} \in G but where does the equality of xy=(xy)1xy = (xy)^{-1} come from?
Original post by Zacken
Fair enough (xy)1G(xy)^{-1} \in G but where does the equality of xy=(xy)1xy = (xy)^{-1} come from?

Let g=xyg = xy. Then eg=e1g1e g = e^{-1} g^{-1} by the original condition in the question (letting x=e,y=gx = e, y = g), so g=g1g = g^{-1}. That is, (xy)=(xy)1(xy) = (xy)^{-1}.
Reply 15
Original post by Smaug123
Let g=xyg = xy. Then eg=e1g1e g = e^{-1} g^{-1} by the original condition in the question (letting x=e,y=gx = e, y = g), so g=g1g = g^{-1}. That is, (xy)=(xy)1(xy) = (xy)^{-1}.


*wipes sweat off forehead* This abstractness is hard to swallow. Thanks again, it makes a load more sense now. :smile:

+Rep
Original post by Zacken
*wipes sweat off forehead* This abstractness is hard to swallow. Thanks again, it makes a load more sense now. :smile:

+Rep

Thanks :smile: sorry, do tell me if I'm being too abstract. It takes a bit of time to get the right frame of mind to just swap variables in and out for each other like that. A big part of becoming a mathematician is, in my opinion, gaining the ability to detach your understanding of a thing (eg. the element xyxy as a member of GG) from its name ("xyxy", which is not helpful when it comes to deriving the fact that xy=(xy)1xy = (xy)^{-1}).
Reply 17
Original post by Smaug123
Thanks :smile: sorry, do tell me if I'm being too abstract. It takes a bit of time to get the right frame of mind to just swap variables in and out for each other like that. A big part of becoming a mathematician is, in my opinion, gaining the ability to detach your understanding of a thing (eg. the element xyxy as a member of GG) from its name ("xyxy", which is not helpful when it comes to deriving the fact that xy=(xy)1xy = (xy)^{-1}).


No, no, you make way more sense than my textbook! :tongue: - quite a good teacher, really. :smile:

I'm still struggling to get used to that, trying to detach my pre-conceived notions, but I always get scared that detaching them might lead to mistakes somewhere, so I juggle the two in my head. I'll get the hang of it someday. :biggrin:

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