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J.K. Rowling Uses Dumbledore to Explain Why She Opposes Israel Boycott

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Original post by KimKallstrom
Well it's more an illustration that people seem to hold Israel to a greater standard than anyone else. Why is this?


It should be clearly pointed out that that is what it is if that's the case. More often than not, I've seen it used to justify Israeli human rights abuses and, unsurprisingly, I've been accused of antisemitism just for pointing out that it's a nonsense argument to say 'but they're killing homosexuals' or any variant of that.

It's also very much the case that Israel insists on portraying itself as the sole island of civilisation in a sea of barbarity -- to call them out for hypocrisy on that count isn't unfair, I don't think. They may begin to have a point about it if they make a public announcement that they're happy to be considered in the same light as Saudi Arabia: a bloated, geriatric dictatorship whom we secretly loathe but support anyway for the sake of mutual interests. I suspect Israel won't want to do that though. :tongue:
Original post by SignFromDog
Coloured and black South Africans are not the same thing.


Nowhere did I say they were.

Black people in South Africa were only permitted to vote from the first all-race elections in South Africa in April 1994, which is considered the end of apartheid. So yes; black people in South Africa never had the vote until the end of apartheid; that was one of the defining features of apartheid.


Black people did not have the vote in South Africa because, according to the South African government, they were not citizens of South Africa, but of KwaZulu/Ciskei/Bophuthatswana/etc, and supposedly exercised their voting rights there. Similar to as Israel claims with regards to the Palestinians in the West Bank and Gaza with the PA, which is de facto a bantustan.
Original post by anarchism101
Nowhere did I say they were.

Black people did not have the vote in South Africa because


You were the one who drew the poor analogy, due to your lack of understanding of South Africa.

In an analogy, you have to compare like with like. The internal population of black South Africans in the townships are analogous to the internal population of Arab Israelis is your assertion.

In the former case, they have the vote. In the latter case, they did not during any part of apartheid as you have admitted. Therefore, your analogy fails.
Original post by SignFromDog

In an analogy, you have to compare like with like. The internal population of black South Africans in the townships are analogous to the internal population of Arab Israelis is your assertion.


No, it isn't. That Black South Africans are analagous to West Bank Palestinians is my assertion.

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(edited 8 years ago)

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