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Homeopathy effective for 0 out of 68 illnesses, study finds

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Original post by nulli tertius
You are being unfair on doctors.

If you had gone to a doctor with your influenza virus, he would have cured it, as tens of thousands of others with similar viruses are cured every year, by prescribing you an antibiotic.


He's being sarcastic, nulli.
Original post by like_marmite
He's being sarcastic, nulli.


And so am I
Original post by nulli tertius
And so am I


Oh right. And a zinger it was.
you lot realise that say aromatherapy works it creates most modern medicine and it cheaper so big pharma want it disproved to keep the sheep pouring money in to there pockets
Original post by Kvothe the arcane
Thanks for the link @thunder_chunky. The result is unsurprising, of course.

I am not sure, though, why people are anti-homeopathy and yet freely go to to pharmacies to buy sugar pills and sugar syrups with little to no active ingredients.





This study found that even after patients knew they were taking a placebo, they still felt the effects (granted they'd already associated the placebo with medical effects). It certainly isn't a "dumb people" thing.


No? I'd consider it the next level of dumb. Maybe they thought the doctors were talking about the band.
Original post by nulli tertius
In most areas of life, the baseline that is used is "doing nothing". We know that a placebo is more effective than "doing nothing" for many conditions, so in requiring homeopathy to achieve more than a placebo rather than more than "doing nothing" one is imposing an arbitrary benchmark (the effect of a placebo) uniquely on homeopathy.


We're not talking about most areas of life, here. We're talking about clinical trials, and in clinical trials, treatments are tested against a placebo. It's not imposing an arbitrary, unique benchmark on homeopathy, it's applying the same benchmark to homeopathy that we apply to all other medical treatments.
Original post by nulli tertius
You are being unfair on doctors.

If you had gone to a doctor with your influenza virus, he would have cured it, as tens of thousands of others with similar viruses are cured every year, by prescribing you an antibiotic.


I'm starting to think that you either have no idea what you're talking about, or you're intentionally spouting garbage in the hope of eliciting a reaction. Antibiotics have no effect on viruses such as the flu. Antibiotics are only effective against bacteria, and occasionally fungi and protozoa.
Original post by anosmianAcrimony
We're not talking about most areas of life, here. We're talking about clinical trials, and in clinical trials, treatments are tested against a placebo. It's not imposing an arbitrary, unique benchmark on homeopathy, it's applying the same benchmark to homeopathy that we apply to all other medical treatments.


That is just a policy and that policy contains a bias against homeopathy.

Homeopathy is a treatment with no active ingredient but the policy the medical profession imposes requires homeopathy to exceed (not equal) the medical profession's preferred treatment with no active ingredient (placebo).
Original post by anosmianAcrimony
I'm starting to think that you either have no idea what you're talking about, or you're intentionally spouting garbage in the hope of eliciting a reaction. Antibiotics have no effect on viruses such as the flu. Antibiotics are only effective against bacteria, and occasionally fungi and protozoa.


Quantex made satirical comment about homeopathy's "proven" ability to "cure" self-regulating conditions.

I made an equally satirical comment that this was not the prerogative of homeopaths. The medical profession "cured" thousands of self-regulating conditions every year by prescribing antibiotics for viruses.
Original post by nulli tertius

Homeopathy is a treatment with no active ingredient but the policy the medical profession imposes requires homeopathy to exceed (not equal) the medical profession's preferred treatment with no active ingredient (placebo).


That, surely, is because placebos are essentially almost free, while homeopathic 'medicines' are most certainly not. To achieve the same effect as something that costs next to nothing while having a meaningful cost is not very cost-effective.

The other problem with them is that they are potentially dangerous as the claims made for them inveigles people to take them when truly effective medicines could be taken instead.
Original post by Good bloke
That, surely, is because placebos are essentially almost free, while homeopathic 'medicines' are most certainly not. To achieve the same effect as something that costs next to nothing while having a meaningful cost is not very cost-effective.

The other problem with them is that they are potentially dangerous as the claims made for them inveigles people to take them when truly effective medicines could be taken instead.


Refer back to my post 15 where I deal with both these points.
Homeopathy has no basis in science but the placebo effect is well documented to work. And they're related, in both cases the person thinks they're receiving treatment that is going to work. Thus they get better.
Original post by Eva.Gregoria
Homeopathy has no basis in science but the placebo effect is well documented to work. And they're related, in both cases the person thinks they're receiving treatment that is going to work. Thus they get better.


1The placebo effect is more complex than this. See
Kvothe the arcane's post.

2 You are confusing two things; whether homeopathic remedies have a basis in science and whether they have a biochemical effect. You accept (1) that the placebo effect has a basis in science and that (2) people treated with homeopathic medicines get better because they think they are going to work. There are only two conclusions you can draw from this:- (a) that homeopathy has a basis in science based on the placebo effect or (b) there is some supernatural ie beyond the known laws of nature, process at work here.

Most homeopaths believe (b) which they usually call "water memory" but I prefer to think that (a) is correct. I will believe in (b) when my bathwater recites Gray's Elegy.
Original post by Kvothe the arcane
Thanks for the link @thunder_chunky. The result is unsurprising, of course.

I am not sure, though, why people are anti-homeopathy and yet freely go to to pharmacies to buy sugar pills and sugar syrups with little to no active ingredients.




Yeah that picture is not really of sugar pills FYI. It's actually medicine.
Original post by nulli tertius
In most areas of life, the baseline that is used is "doing nothing". We know that a placebo is more effective than "doing nothing" for many conditions, so in requiring homeopathy to achieve more than a placebo rather than more than "doing nothing" one is imposing an arbitrary benchmark (the effect of a placebo) uniquely on homeopathy.


I bold the word "uniquely" because I'm curious to see why you think this is the case.

It's my understanding that when testing the effectiveness of various drugs in clinical trials, a placebo is always administered to a control group and their results are then the bench march to test for statistical differences.

It's homoeopaths who ignore this fact -- focusing only on the "better than nothing" placebo effect that their remedies produce. The inconsistency lies with them rather than us or Drs imposing a unique condition.
(edited 8 years ago)
Original post by Kvothe the arcane
I bold the word "uniquely" because I'm curious to see why you think this is the case.

It's my understanding that when testing the effectiveness of various drugs in clinical trials, a placebo is always administered to a control group and their results are then the bench march to test for statistical differences.

It's homoeopaths who ignore this fact -- focusing only on the "better than nothing" placebo effect that their remedies produce. The inconsistency lies with them rather than us or Drs imposing a unique condition.



Homeopaths seek to prove that their remedies have a chemical effect due to the composition of their remedies. The patient, the public, the taxpayer, doesn't care whether it has a chemical effect or not. They only care whether it works or not.

Conventional medicine isn't neutral. Ever since the 19th century, it has fought campaigns against other remedy systems and most of those fights have been pretty dirty. There is a lot of material on the fight with patent medicine and the bone manipulators. There is less on the absence of an underlying theoretical explanation for the effectiveness of most pre-WWII conventional treatments still in current use. This is an aspect of that dirty fight. As soon as the placebo effect (as opposed to the use of placebos to test remedies or indulge patients) was discovered, the discounting of the placebo effect simply shifts the goalposts in favour of chemical active as opposed to chemically inert treatment. Likewise treating a side effect as something apart from the beneficial effect rather than an offset against the beneficial effect favoured the chemically active rather than the inert.

Most doctors would challenge the statement that homeopathic medicines were better than thalidomide at treating morning sickness. They would say that any effect on morning sickness of the homeopathic medicine was no better than a placebo effect. Thalidomide was far more effective at controlling morning sickness than a placebo. Unfortunately there was the side effect that children were born grossly deformed. However if you ranked mothers who took thalidomide, those with no medication and those who took homeopathic medicine then undoubtedly the patients with the best overall outcome would be those taking the homeopathic medicine, How you construct the question determines the outcome and conventional medicine in the 19th century was determined to construct the question to expunge other remedy systems.
(edited 8 years ago)
Reply 36
Original post by nulli tertius
Most opponents of homeopathy apply a different standard to homeopathy than they apply to other treatments.

Homeopathy is usually tested against a standard of it "being no better than a placebo", meaning no more effective in clinical trials.

If you invent an over-the-counter pain killer, it would not have to meet a standard of being better than paracetamol. It would be good enough if it was as effective as paracetamol and was cheaper or safer or had fewer side effects than paracetamol.
Being as effective as paracetamol sounds like a higher standard than being better than placebo to me.


Original post by nulli tertius

Is homeopathy as good as a placebo? I don't think the evidence base exists, one way or the other.

Does homeopathy have any other advantages over a placebo? Yes, it probably does, because although its practitioners spend longer on average with patients than do doctors, the time cost of a homeopath is much lower. Therefore homeopathy is probably cheaper than a placebo.


You seem to be applying a different standard to homeopathy here. Why is it only doctors can administer a placebo unless its homeopathy?

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