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I need time dilation help please?

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Reply 160
Original post by Protoxylic
Right boys we can all get back to work now, there's the contradiction we have all been waiting for.


There is no contradiction
Original post by AlbertXY
1 can be any size, 900 mile is 1 length


Sorry my head hurts lol I have had to explain this so many times looking for a simple answer.


Actually no because these numbers have units. 900 miles does not equal 1 length. Because if 900 miles = 1 length then does 1800 miles = 2 lengths, this makes sense. But if you define two length scales in the same frame, that is inconsistent.

In other words you cannot say 900 miles is your length scale and at the same time 10 miles is your length scale because that would mean there would be multiple answers for any length in any frame and you wouldn't be able to prove anything geometrically because everything would be a contradiction.

I'm seeing a pattern here, you make an axiom of your own and then act surprised when you apply it to see that it contradicts the physical world. Ok that's obvious and we all know it does that, does it mean it applies to the real world? Does it ****.
Original post by AlbertXY
1 can be any size, 900 mile is 1 length


Sorry my head hurts lol I have had to explain this so many times looking for a simple answer.

Ok congrats you have made a new unit of measurement. Does it provide any sort of improvement over the metre? how does it fit in with SI units? Why 900 miles? Have you considered what the dimensions are here? what implications does this have on the current models?
These are the questions that need to be answered for your theory. At the moment, not one has been answered with rigour.
Reply 163
Original post by Protoxylic
Actually no because these numbers have units. 900 miles does not equal 1 length. Because if 900 miles = 1 length then does 1800 miles = 2 lengths, this makes sense. But if you define two length scales in the same frame, that is inconsistent.

In other words you cannot say 900 miles is your length scale and at the same time 10 miles is your length scale because that would mean there would be multiple answers for any length in any frame and you wouldn't be able to prove anything geometrically because everything would be a contradiction.

I'm seeing a pattern here, you make an axiom of your own and then act surprised when you apply it to see that it contradicts the physical world. Ok that's obvious and we all know it does that, does it mean it applies to the real world? Does it ****.


No 1800 = 1 length also.


one ruler is one ruler no matter what the length.
Original post by AlbertXY
There is no contradiction


Are you blind?

0=n - you defined it to be so (1)
dt=0 you said this is true in nature (2)

(2) contradicts (1) and also the other way around because now dt=n and therefore time intervals exist.
Reply 165
Original post by The-Spartan
Ok congrats you have made a new unit of measurement. Does it provide any sort of improvement over the metre? how does it fit in with SI units? Why 900 miles? Have you considered what the dimensions are here? what implications does this have on the current models?
These are the questions that need to be answered for your theory. At the moment, not one has been answered with rigour.


I think you misunderstand.
Original post by AlbertXY
No 1800 = 1 length also.


one ruler is one ruler no matter what the length.


I understand that 1800 miles is a length, thanks.

So if there are 50 people in a room do you say there is one person?
Reply 167
Original post by Protoxylic
Are you blind?

0=n - you defined it to be so (1)
dt=0 you said this is true in nature (2)

(2) contradicts (1) and also the other way around because now dt=n and therefore time intervals exist.

You are adding this by ambiguity maybe, d/t=0 when talking about sight, I can see my hand and the sun at the same time.


I provided the maths earlier.


0 to 0 is n-dimensional i a light singularity in any direction,

1 to 1 reflects dimensions of light to produce a length between things.

r1 can be short or long relative to light magnitude. it can also be 0 when two masses are touching.
Original post by AlbertXY
I think you misunderstand.

No i understand, what i gave there was just an example. They are the kind of questions that need to be asked in science, not
'i dont think its correct cause i am correct, because 0=1 and k=0=1 and bang, einstein was wrong, physics is wrong done proven im right'.
Original post by AlbertXY
You are adding this by ambiguity maybe, d/t=0 when talking about sight, I can see my hand and the sun at the same time.


I provided the maths earlier.


0 to 0 is n-dimensional i a light singularity in any direction,

1 to 1 reflects dimensions of light to produce a length between things.

r1 can be short or long relative to light magnitude. it can also be 0 when two masses are touching.


Sorry none of the above makes any physical sense.

Your statement of the sun implies that there is distance between you and the Sun.
Reply 170
Original post by Protoxylic
I understand that 1800 miles is a length, thanks.

So if there are 50 people in a room do you say there is one person?



No there is 50 people why would I say there is one person, people are a relative dot compared to the dimensions we are talking about.
Original post by AlbertXY
You are adding this by ambiguity maybe, d/t=0 when talking about sight, I can see my hand and the sun at the same time.


I provided the maths earlier.


0 to 0 is n-dimensional i a light singularity in any direction,

1 to 1 reflects dimensions of light to produce a length between things.

r1 can be short or long relative to light magnitude. it can also be 0 when two masses are touching.


what do you mean light singularity. singularity has, as mentioned before, a specific definition that does not coincide with your argument there.

The reflections of light do not magically create distances between objects. Their position in the space time continuum does that.

Light magnitude? whats that? do you mean intensity? flux density? when two masses are touching, where is technically still distance between them...
Not sure what you mean.
Original post by AlbertXY
No there is 50 people why would I say there is one person, people are a relative dot compared to the dimensions we are talking about.


Nope, people have dimensions. You are defining people to have zero dimensions, yet another stupid axiom of yours that you will use against standard physics to try and derail it. Stop being stupid now.

I could easily say a length is a dot because people are objects and so is a ruler. So a ruler is a dot therefore your definition of a length is dimensionless. Do you see how many flaws your theory has.
Reply 173
Original post by The-Spartan
what do you mean light singularity. singularity has, as mentioned before, a specific definition that does not coincide with your argument there.

The reflections of light do not magically create distances between objects. Their position in the space time continuum does that.

Light magnitude? whats that? do you mean intensity? flux density? when two masses are touching, where is technically still distance between them...
Not sure what you mean.


Just forget science a minute and forget you know any science, please tell me what you observe with your eyes ,

In the space between your eyes and any object what colour do you see?

Standing on a train track observing a train travelling away from you what do you observe the area of the trains rear does the greater the radius away from you away it travels?


Let me lead you to understanding by answering the questions truthfully.
Reply 174
Original post by Protoxylic
Nope, people have dimensions. You are defining people to have zero dimensions, yet another stupid axiom of yours that you will use against standard physics to try and derail it. Stop being stupid now.

I could easily say a length is a dot because people are objects and so is a ruler. So a ruler is a dot therefore your definition of a length is dimensionless. Do you see how many flaws your theory has.


Just forget science a minute and forget you know any science, please tell me what you observe with your eyes ,

In the space between your eyes and any object what colour do you see?

Standing on a train track observing a train travelling away from you what do you observe the area of the trains rear does the greater the radius away from you away it travels?


Let me lead you to understanding by answering the questions truthfully.
Original post by AlbertXY
Just forget science a minute and forget you know any science, please tell me what you observe with your eyes ,

In the space between your eyes and any object what colour do you see?

Standing on a train track observing a train travelling away from you what do you observe the area of the trains rear does the greater the radius away from you away it travels?


Let me lead you to understanding by answering the questions truthfully.

Yes! lets imagine i know nothing about science.
Ok let me start by saying that a human is possibly the worst data measuring device known.
but anyway, there is no definition for the colour of that space. It is invisible to the human eye

The area decreases through 1r2\frac{1}{r^2} which is a well known relationship. (your first axiom breaks this btw, in your world, the train would occupy no space whatsoever wherever it is because the distance is governed by light :colonhash:)
Original post by AlbertXY
Just forget science a minute and forget you know any science, please tell me what you observe with your eyes ,

In the space between your eyes and any object what colour do you see?

Standing on a train track observing a train travelling away from you what do you observe the area of the trains rear does the greater the radius away from you away it travels?


Let me lead you to understanding by answering the questions truthfully.


I'm done. I think you are starting to realise the flaws.

(I just said a couple posts ago, the apparent object magnification as it comes closer is a geometric consequence of flat euclidian space - what you are observing is the angle between the extrema of the object (Subtended at your eye) enlarge. You are not witnessing an increase in it's length, extend your ruler outwards and you will realise that the object has the same length. The definition of length is very concrete, stop making other definitions of what you think length is and then you try to apply it to models in which that definition of length isn't used. Your approach to the scientific model is absolutely crazy.
(edited 8 years ago)
Reply 177
Original post by The-Spartan
It is invisible to the human eye


It is ''transparent'' to sight yes? We can see through space like seeing through glass.



The area decreases through 1r2\frac{1}{r^2} which is a well known relationship. (your first axiom breaks this btw, in your world, the train would occupy no space whatsoever wherever it is because the distance is governed by light :colonhash:)



No, you have misunderstood, the area decreases to an eventual 0 point source yes? A point when we can't observe an area of light?

The inverse square law at this point collapses, the light becomes dimensionless a 0 singularity.
(edited 8 years ago)
Reply 178
Original post by Protoxylic
I'm done. I think you are starting to realise the flaws.

(I just said a couple posts ago, the apparent object magnification as it comes closer is a geometric consequence of flat euclidian space - what you are observing is the angle between the extrema of the object (Subtended at your eye) enlarge. You are not witnessing an increase in it's length, extend your ruler outwards and you will realise that the object has the same length. The definition of length is very concrete, stop making other definitions of what you think length is and then you try to apply it to models in which that definition of length isn't used. Your approach to the scientific model is absolutely crazy.


You are misunderstanding
Original post by AlbertXY


It is ''transparent'' to sight yes? We can see through space like seeing through glass.






No, you have misunderstood, the area decreases to an eventual 0 point source yes? A point when we can't observe an area of light?

Congratulations, you have shown that humans can see through space. Revelation boys.

The area of the light does not become 0. The intensity of the light reflecting off the train tends towards 0. As I1r2I \propto \frac{1}{r^2} you see the problem.
There will still be light coming from the train even if it is from the other side of the universe, it just wont be intense the photons themselves will have the same properties as if it was next door.

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