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Edexcel S3 - Wednesday 25th May AM 2016

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Original post by Zacken
Yes. June 2013.


Thanks! done so many questions im losing track lol
Original post by Zacken
The order of ranking does not matter as long as it consistent.


Original post by Inges
No they've ordered both from smallest to largest, So for A the 2 means 2nd smallest in employee's and the 1 means 1st smallest in Population.


Thank you, I was just being a complete div :s-smilie:
Reply 1082
Original post by Music With Rocks
Thank you, I was just being a complete div :s-smilie:


No problem, read all the questions and answers on here as your last resort & youll smash this don't worry at all!
Original post by Inges
If your spec is Edexcel then yes! Its real easy google it and memories it!


Please could you post this proof, can't seem to find it online, do we definitely need to be able to prove it? Thanks :smile:
What's the rule about mode mean and median in relation to positive and negative Skewness?
Reply 1085
Original post by Rkai01
What's the rule about mode mean and median in relation to positive and negative Skewness?


Mean<Median<Mode = Negative
Mean>Median>Mode = Positive

Not sure how to learn it easily, i just learnt it how it is
Original post by economicss
Please could you post this proof, can't seem to find it online, do we definitely need to be able to prove it? Thanks :smile:


@Zacken Please help, do we need to know this proof, and if so what is it in it's simplest form please? Thanks :smile:
Reply 1087
Original post by Rkai01
What's the rule about mode mean and median in relation to positive and negative Skewness?


mode<median<mean for positive
mode>meadian>mean for negative

I remember it by the mean being the prime method used by people/statisicians so if the mean is highest, its positive
Reply 1088
Reply 1089
Original post by economicss
Please could you post this proof, can't seem to find it online, do we definitely need to be able to prove it? Thanks :smile:


I'm gonna write it out on a piece of paper and upload it in a minute.
I'm trawling through this thread and getting freaked out by people saying 'total error' and using terminology that isn't in the textbook so I'm gonna call it a day with this thread and revisit it after the exam tomorrow.

Good luck to everyone :smile:
Original post by kennz
mode<median<mean for positive
mode>meadian>mean for negative

I remember it by the mean being the prime method used by people/statisicians so if the mean is highest, its positive


With relation to whether it can be from a normal distribution, is a positive Skewness indicating it can be from a normal distribution?


It asked Find the probability that the mean of these results is within 0.3 mm of w. and mean would be 16/16 square which make it /16
Reply 1093
Original post by anndz3007
It asked Find the probability that the mean of these results is within 0.3 mm of w. and mean would be 16/16 square which make it /16

thank you, completely misread it, I thought thats what it had to be but I couldnt see the mean in the question haha
Original post by Euclidean
I'm trawling through this thread and getting freaked out by people saying 'total error' and using terminology that isn't in the textbook so I'm gonna call it a day with this thread and revisit it after the exam tomorrow.

Good luck to everyone :smile:


Good luck! :rave:
Original post by economicss
@Zacken Please help, do we need to know this proof, and if so what is it in it's simplest form please? Thanks :smile:


Pretty sure the textbook says the proof isn't examinable.
Original post by Euclidean
I'm trawling through this thread and getting freaked out by people saying 'total error' and using terminology that isn't in the textbook so I'm gonna call it a day with this thread and revisit it after the exam tomorrow.

Good luck to everyone :smile:


Sound.

Good luck. :smile:
Reply 1097
Original post by economicss
Please could you post this proof, can't seem to find it online, do we definitely need to be able to prove it? Thanks :smile:


Its not letting me upload it so i put it on imgur.

Heres the link : http://imgur.com/wojNvaa
For part d, if you use the Variance formula Var(X-Y)=Var(X)+Var(Y) you get 6sigma^2/5 which is incorrect. The actual variance was 4sigma^2/5 and I understand how to get there.

Am I correct in saying we do not use the variance formula because U1 and Ubar are from the same sample? Thanks.
Original post by paradoxequation
For part d, if you use the Variance formula Var(X-Y)=Var(X)+Var(Y) you get 6sigma^2/5 which is incorrect. The actual variance was 4sigma^2/5 and I understand how to get there.

Am I correct in saying we do not use the variance formula because U1 and Ubar are from the same sample? Thanks.


It's because U1U_1 and Uˉ\bar{U} are not independent. The formula you quoted are only for independent random variables X,YX,Y. They are not independent because they come from the same sample, but the important thing here is that they are not independent.

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