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S1 question

this question is really ****ing pissing me off, I just cant do it. edexcel ****ers decide to mind**** students with this question

https://1a388b28f5ce9318f837a64962fc3ceab9c61da8.googledrive.com/host/0B1ZiqBksUHNYU2s1SVY1VDN2Q0U/January%202014%20(IAL)%20QP%20-%20S1%20Edexcel.pdf

question 5
Reply 1
Draw your Venn diagram. Put in the information you know and then work from there using your knowledge of how Venn diagrams work applied to the information you're given.

Don't be put of that this has 3 circles... Often these questions are made easier because students over-react to them...
Reply 2
Original post by JLegion
Draw your Venn diagram. Put in the information you know and then work from there using your knowledge of how Venn diagrams work applied to the information you're given.

Don't be put of that this has 3 circles... Often these questions are made easier because students over-react to them...


I have tried it already, and i still cant do it. The entire paper is so hard. Question 7 is also another one which I cannot do
Reply 3
Could you post your working so far so we can see where you're going wrong?

Also, do you remember how to apply information into Venn diagrams? If not, I'd recommend going over that chapter again - practice a few of the review exercise questions too, because they are about as hard as it'll get.

For question 7, what parts are you having trouble with?
(edited 7 years ago)
Reply 4
Original post by JLegion
Could you post your working so far so we can see where you're going wrong?

Also, do you remember how to apply information into Venn diagrams? If not, I'd recommend going over that chapter again - practice a few of the review exercise questions too, because they are about as hard as it'll get.

For question 7, what parts are you having trouble with?


for question 7, the first part. The mark scheme shows that you have to multiply the probablities which suggest its independent? but I dont seee why
Original post by imran_
for question 7, the first part. The mark scheme shows that you have to multiply the probablities which suggest its independent? but I dont seee why


Hmm.. Not sure why the MS states that (I'll look into to it later).

What I thought the solution is is this:

P(M|L) = P(M and L)/P(L) = 0.2/0.3 = 2/3

EDIT: Welp. Looks like I'm wrong (checked the MS)...

EDIT 2: P(M and L) doesn't equal 0.2 as 0.2 refers to the prob of a male being left handed (and not the overall prob of a male being chosen who is left handed). Really struggling to grasp the use of the independence law though...
(edited 7 years ago)
You can tackle this easier with a tree diagram in my honest opinion.

First branch is male (3/5) and female (2/5).

The second branch is left or right. From the male one it will be L (1/5) and R (4/5)

And from the female one is unknown. Maybe call the left branch x. Use your multiplying rules and the information the question tells you (3/10) left handed to find x.
Reply 7
Original post by plaguarist
You can tackle this easier with a tree diagram in my honest opinion.

First branch is male (3/5) and female (2/5).

The second branch is left or right. From the male one it will be L (1/5) and R (4/5)

And from the female one is unknown. Maybe call the left branch x. Use your multiplying rules and the information the question tells you (3/10) left handed to find x.


would u mind showing a worked solution please

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