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fourier series

The fourier series of f(x)=x/pi from pi to -pi

Ao = 1?

since the integral would be 1/pi^2 int (x) dx

so 1/pi^2 [x^2/2] from pi to -pi

but the answer says Ao = 0?
Original post by cushticwarrior
The fourier series of f(x)=x/pi from pi to -pi

Ao = 1?

since the integral would be 1/pi^2 int (x) dx

so 1/pi^2 [x^2/2] from pi to -pi

but the answer says Ao = 0?


[π22][(π)22]=π22π22=0[\frac{\pi^2}{2}]-[\frac{(-\pi)^2}{2}] = \frac{\pi^2}{2} - \frac{\pi^2}{2} = 0
Original post by SherlockHolmes
[π22][(π)22]=π22π22=0[\frac{\pi^2}{2}]-[\frac{(-\pi)^2}{2}] = \frac{\pi^2}{2} - \frac{\pi^2}{2} = 0

i see, thanks

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