Hi there,
I'm having trouble with the following Mechanics question:
"A pendulum swings through an angle a on either side of the vertical. The length of the thread is l, and the mass of the bob is m. Find an expression for the tension in the thread when the bob is in its lowest point. Find also the tension predicted by using the SHM approximation".
The first part is fine - I use a conservation of energy equation to get v^2, and then resolve radial forces and use the fact radial acceleration = (v^2)/r to solve for T, getting mg(3-2cos(alpha). The next part is what gives the problem.
I understand that the SHM approximation is when you get the equation d(theta)/dt^2 = -sqrt(g/l)sin(theta), and use the fact that sin(theta) is approximately theta to get an equation of SHM form. However, this equation doesn't involve T. Additionally, under the SHM model, we take the only force to be opposing the direction of motion - e.g transverse - and so would surely assume T = mg...?
The answer in the back of the book is mg(1+a^2). This can quite easily be obtained from the answer I got through Conservation of Energy (mg(3-2cos(a)), using the approximation cosa = 1 - 0.5a^2 for small a. However this isn't using SHM in any form ...
So in short - am I misunderstanding what we mean when we treat a pendulum as SHM (so we DO have a radial component...?), and thus is there some method to get this answer which uses SHM more directly?
Sorry for my poor explanation - if my workings so far are unclear I can scan them in.
EDIT: Thinking about it, I see why T = mg doesn't work. We're not saying the displacement of the bob obeys SHM, but our angle made with the vertical, which is why radial acceleration doesn't have to = 0. This leads me to believe that perhaps the point of the exercise WAS just to use the cos small angle approcimation - but this isn't SHM?!