The Student Room Group

Transitivity of cardinality of sets

Suppose |A|=|B| and |B|=|C| then there are bijections f:A->B and g:B->C and since gof:A->C inherits bijectivity from f and g then |A|=|C|.

So for some example my teacher gave he said

consider f:R(0,)f:\mathbb R \to (0,\infty) defined by f(x)=exf(x)=e^x

This is a bijection so R=(0,)|\mathbb R | =|(0,\infty)| but (0,1)=(0,)|(0,1) | =|(0,\infty)| then R=(0,1)|\mathbb R | =|(0,1)|


i get the final conclusion but i'm not understanding where the (0,1) comes from.
Did you have a previous example of a bijection mapping (0, 1) to (0, infty)? (It is not at all hard to find one),
Original post by will'o'wisp2
Suppose |A|=|B| and |B|=|C| then there are bijections f:A->B and g:B->C and since gof:A->C inherits bijectivity from f and g then |A|=|C|.

So for some example my teacher gave he said

consider f:R(0,)f:\mathbb R \to (0,\infty) defined by f(x)=exf(x)=e^x

This is a bijection so R=(0,)|\mathbb R | =|(0,\infty)| but (0,1)=(0,)|(0,1) | =|(0,\infty)| then R=(0,1)|\mathbb R | =|(0,1)|


i get the final conclusion but i'm not understanding where the (0,1) comes from.


There's nothing in your post to tell us. Perhaps it's something that was discussed in class/lectures.

We could create a relationshp.

E.g. Consider g:(0,)(0,1)g : (0,\infty)\to (0,1) defined by g(x)=11+xg(x)=\dfrac{1}{1+x}

This is a bijection, and a "g" we can use in the transitivity.
Original post by DFranklin
Did you have a previous example of a bijection mapping (0, 1) to (0, infty)? (It is not at all hard to find one),


There is a function on the previous sheet of paper which was the function y=11xy=\dfrac{1}{1-x}
Original post by ghostwalker
There's nothing in your post to tell us. Perhaps it's something that was discussed in class/lectures.

We could create a relationshp.

E.g. Consider g:(0,)(0,1)g : (0,\infty)\to (0,1) defined by g(x)=11+xg(x)=\dfrac{1}{1+x}

This is a bijection, and a "g" we can use in the transitivity.


oh right i see, yes there was a bijective mapping from (0,1)->(0,infinity) for a function 11x\dfrac{1}{1-x} which ii think probabyl helps, thanks a bunch
Original post by will'o'wisp2
oh right i see, yes there was a bijective mapping from (0,1)->(0,infinity) for a function 11x\dfrac{1}{1-x} which ii think probabyl helps, thanks a bunch


Wtih that domain the codomain for that function is (1,)(1,\infty), for a bijection.
(edited 6 years ago)
Original post by ghostwalker
Wtih that domain the codomain for that function is (1,)(1,\infty), for a bijection.


sorry my mistake i misread, the function was x1x\dfrac{x}{1-x} my bad
Original post by will'o'wisp2
sorry my mistake i misread, the function was x1x\dfrac{x}{1-x} my bad


Yep, that will do it.

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