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What is the difference between a regular verb and an irregular verb? i.e What makes something irregular?

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Original post by AbiHorn
What is the difference between a regular verb and an irregular verb? i.e What makes something irregular?

That one or more forms of the verb go against the standard endings. So for example, a regular -ar verb will have predictable endings in all of the tenses. Usually if one or more of those conjugations is the odd one out then the verb is irregular.
Reply 2
Original post by Plantagenet Crown
That one or more forms of the verb go against the standard endings. So for example, a regular -ar verb will have predictable endings in all of the tenses. Usually if one or more of those conjugations is the odd one out then the verb is irregular.

Thank you, :smile:Do you know what a radical changing verb is?
Original post by AbiHorn
Thank you, :smile:Do you know what a radical changing verb is?

Yes, it's a verb where the stem changes.

So for example the verb "to be able" is "poder". And if it were regular the conjugations would keep the "o" stem. The conjugations for present tense would therefore be:

Yo podo
podes
Él pode
Nosotros podemos
Vosotros podéis
Ellos poden.

But because it's stem-changing, the "o" stem mutates to "ue" in all but the "nosotros" and "vosotros" forms. So the correct conjugations for present tense are:

Yo puedo
puedes
Él puede
Nosotros podemos
Vosotros podéis
Ellos pueden

There are other stem changers, such as "e" to "ie" (e.g. querer ---> yo quiero) and "e" to "i" (e.g. pedir ---> yo pido).
Reply 4
Original post by Plantagenet Crown
Yes, it's a verb where the stem changes.

So for example the verb "to be able" is "poder". And if it were regular the conjugations would keep the "o" stem. The conjugations for present tense would therefore be:

Yo podo
podes
Él pode
Nosotros podemos
Vosotros podéis
Ellos poden.

But because it's stem-changing, the "o" stem mutates to "ue" in all but the "nosotros" and "vosotros" forms. So the correct conjugations for present tense are:

Yo puedo
puedes
Él puede
Nosotros podemos
Vosotros podéis
Ellos pueden

There are other stem changers, such as "e" to "ie" (e.g. querer ---> yo quiero) and "e" to "i" (e.g. pedir ---> yo pido).


So when would you have to put Yo/Tu/el/nosotros/vosotros/ellos in front of the verb? Why does this happen? Adn is there a way to know or is it just down to learning and practicing ?

Original post by AbiHorn
So when would you have to put Yo/Tu/el/nosotros/vosotros/ellos in front of the verb? Why does this happen? Adn is there a way to know or is it just down to learning and practicing ?

Well that just means "I/you/he/we/you all/they. In pretty much all scenarios you can delete them in both written and spoken form because Spanish is a pro-drop language. You would usually only include the pronouns if you really want to emphasise who you're talking about, but it's not generally necessary. Reading and listening to a lot of Spanish will greatly help you get used to the common structures and the cases where the pronouns do appear.
Reply 6
For example, if I wrote 'tengo' that would translate to I have, but if i wrote 'Yo tengo' that would also be correct?
Original post by AbiHorn
For example, if I wrote 'tengo' that would translate to I have, but if i wrote 'Yo tengo' that would also be correct?

Yes, both mean "I have", but "tengo" is far more commonly used than "yo tengo".
Reply 8
Original post by Plantagenet Crown
Yes, both mean "I have", but "tengo" is far more commonly used than "yo tengo".

So I'm guessing it is just preference? I tend not to use the pronouns anyway :smile: Confuses me more
Why are there two verbs for certain 'things'? 'To cause' ( ocasionar and provocar)?
Original post by AbiHorn
So I'm guessing it is just preference? I tend not to use the pronouns anyway :smile: Confuses me more


It's actually not preference, all Spanish speakers will use "tengo" 99% of the time, it's usually only when you want to emphasise that you'd insert "yo".

Why are there two verbs for certain 'things'? 'To cause' ( ocasionar and provocar)?

There's also "causar" :biggrin:

Don't know, most languages have several words for some nouns and verbs. I'd say "provocar" is far more frequently used than "ocasionar".
Original post by AbiHorn
What is the difference between a regular verb and an irregular verb? i.e What makes something irregular?


An irregular verb doesn't follow the usual patterns. an exception to the rule
A regular verb will follow the pattern .
Reply 11
Original post by Plantagenet Crown
It's actually not preference, all Spanish speakers will use "tengo" 99% of the time, it's usually only when you want to emphasise that you'd insert "yo".


There's also "causar" :biggrin:

Don't know, most languages have several words for some nouns and verbs. I'd say "provocar" is far more frequently used than "ocasionar".


Thankyou for your help :biggrin: ... One last thing; does preterite mean the past tense?
And what is imperfect used for, conditional and subjunctive, what do these all mean?
Original post by AbiHorn
Thankyou for your help :biggrin: ... One last thing; does preterite mean the past tense?


Preterite is the simple past tense. e.g. "I went" instead of the difference type of past such as "I have eaten".

And what is imperfect used for,


Generally for repeated actions in the past.

conditional


This is used for phrases where you use "would" and "should".

and subjunctive, what do these all mean?

This is the most difficult tense and can't be explained simply. You'd need to actually be taught this properly.
(edited 4 years ago)
Hi imperfect is a form of past tense used to describe an ongoing action that happened in the past.
For example I used to play tennis every week.
It's something that hasn't just happened once.
Conditional is a tense often alluded to through 'should' and 'would.' you can often use the conditional with if.
Subjunctive is a mood used to express desire and judgement. For example in English, if I were younger, if I were taller.
Hope this helps.
Feel free to ask if it's a little confusing.
Original post by AbiHorn
What is the difference between a regular verb and an irregular verb? i.e What makes something irregular?


I found this really difficult at first so I totally understand where you're coming from.
BBC Bitesize for languages is a gem.
Original post by Plantagenet Crown
Preterite is the simple past tense. e.g. "I went" instead of the difference type of past such as "I have eaten".



Generally for repeated actions in the past.



This is used for phrases where you use "would" and "should".


This is the most difficult tense and can't be explained simply. You'd need to actually be taught this properly.

Hello :hello:,
I'm reallyyyyy sorry to be a pain, but I study GCSE French and have just started Spanish (in Year 10- I know :s-smilie:). I should knowwww this and I think I do ~ but could you quickly go over the differences between when to use the imperfect and preterite. Do you use the preterite for a completed action that took place over a small period of time and the imperfect for habitual actions in the past? :frown:

Also, is the preterite generally used with time phrases (por ejemplo: la semana pasada, fui de compras)? :blushing: ~ That was probably incorrect but hopefully you understand :blow:

Thank you and sorry to be a bother!
Original post by Shining Stars
Hello :hello:,
I'm reallyyyyy sorry to be a pain, but I study GCSE French and have just started Spanish (in Year 10- I know :s-smilie:). I should knowwww this and I think I do ~ but could you quickly go over the differences between when to use the imperfect and preterite. Do you use the preterite for a completed action that took place over a small period of time and the imperfect for habitual actions in the past? :frown:

Also, is the preterite generally used with time phrases (por ejemplo: la semana pasada, fui de compras)? :blushing: ~ That was probably incorrect but hopefully you understand :blow:

Thank you and sorry to be a bother!


imperfect: i used to ___ (e.g: i used to walk the dog)
preterite: i ___ed (e.g: i walked the dog)

preterite is generally used with time phrases i think.
pm if you need more help with spanish :smile:
(edited 4 years ago)
Gracias! Would you mind if I PMed, I don't want to be a bother :frown:
Original post by Shining Stars
Gracias! Would you mind if I PMed, I don't want to be a bother :frown:

yess of course, it's not a bother :smile:
Original post by Shining Stars
Hello :hello:,
I'm reallyyyyy sorry to be a pain, but I study GCSE French and have just started Spanish (in Year 10- I know :s-smilie:). I should knowwww this and I think I do ~ but could you quickly go over the differences between when to use the imperfect and preterite. Do you use the preterite for a completed action that took place over a small period of time and the imperfect for habitual actions in the past? :frown:

Also, is the preterite generally used with time phrases (por ejemplo: la semana pasada, fui de compras)? :blushing: ~ That was probably incorrect but hopefully you understand :blow:

Thank you and sorry to be a bother!

Yes. Preterite is for a completed action in the past, just how you’d use the preterite in English.

Imperfect is used for completed actions in the past, again, I’m pretty much the same way you’d use it in English.

That phrase was correct but I don’t think it’s preterite because of the specific time phrase, but rather because you going shopping is a completed action. I could just as easily say “fui de compras” without adding any time phrase and it would still be perfectly correct.

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