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    (Original post by lidiya)
    yeah,,but still they have to give money because of the immediate cash!
    it doesnt make scence, the money is already charged as those 20% of the debt, they wont be charged any more. It means that charge is in the nature of debt factoring , without it it is not debt factoring, I hope u got i mean For example, its is the same as saying that u gonna buy car and pay extra money for wheels and engine for it ^^ Its already essential part of the car, same as those 20% of debt factoring ^^
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    (Original post by JG1027)
    i got (-153) didnt you have to get the actual profit variance - the budget profit variance :confused:
    The answer was £154,500 adverse.
    actual profit - budgeted profit = profit variance
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    (Original post by needtosucceed=))
    I got 80.9 too I'm not sure how people got 150 :/

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    I also got 80.9 adverse... can anyone explain how they got 150?
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    i got 80.9 aswell and so did most of my college so its probably right
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    (Original post by Majeue)
    The answer was £154,400 adverse.
    actual profit - budgeted profit = profit variance
    is it ok if i said it was (-)153 but said in the previous bits that my answers were in £000
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    I got 154 (£1,000s) adverse. Would that be right?

    That exam was awful and I hated it. I couldn't concentrate with people making a noise behind me. What did everyone else think?
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    Did any one else get a negative for the actual profit? :confused:
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    (Original post by bullyy)
    i got 80.9 aswell and so did most of my college so its probably right
    Yeah, people either got 80.9 or 154.4 so want to know which is right haha
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    (Original post by Majeue)
    It was £154,400 adverse.
    WHAT THE **** IS DEBT FACTORING? I ASKED MY TEACHER AFTER THE EXAM AND HE DIDNT EVEN KNOW? Does anyone know what it is? I wrote about the overdraft, is that right?
    Um it was in the spec... it was in the book.
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    (Original post by nursy96)
    I also got 80.9 adverse... can anyone explain how they got 150?
    Variance analysis shows the difference between the actual profit and the budgeted one, it is good to measure the perforamnce of business's workforce, because it shows how ur workforce meets targets.
    Favourable variance is when they do well and actuall profits are higher than target. Advers other way round.
    In that question u neede to find actual profit ( which is actual TR- actual TC ) . dont remember exactly, i think it was something like MINUS 36000, then u calculate targeted profit, which was someting like 11700, then u subtract 117000 from MINUS 36000 which gives u MINUS 153000. It says to be 153thousands of adverce profit variance.
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    (Original post by nursy96)
    I also got 80.9 adverse... can anyone explain how they got 150?
    Ok, the budgeted profit was £117,700An the actual profit was -£36800
    Profit variance = Actual profit - budgeted profit = -36800-117,700 =-154,500
    -£154,500 profit means an adverse profit variance of £154,500
    Hope this helps
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    Does it matter if you didn't put thousands?
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    Not too bad of an exam, harder than BUSS1 - as expected. Glad there was a question that heavily linked into motivational theorists
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    (Original post by Majeue)
    Ok, the budgeted profit was £117,700An the actual profit was -£36800
    Profit variance = Actual profit - budgeted profit = -36800-117,700 =-154,500
    -£154,500 profit means an adverse profit variance of £154,500
    Hope this helps
    To be more precise, exatly these numbers i got
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    (Original post by Frostyjoe)
    Um it was in the spec... it was in the book.
    Ahh I was never taught about it...
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    (Original post by Majeue)
    Ahh I was never taught about it...
    The nice point is that ur teacher was never taught about that as u said ^^
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    (Original post by nevmov)
    Variance analysis shows the difference between the actual profit and the budgeted one, it is good to measure the perforamnce of business's workforce, because it shows how ur workforce meets targets.
    Favourable variance is when they do well and actuall profits are higher than target. Advers other way round.
    In that question u neede to find actual profit ( which is actual TR- actual TC ) . dont remember exactly, i think it was something like MINUS 36000, then u calculate targeted profit, which was someting like 11700, then u subtract 117000 from MINUS 36000 which gives u MINUS 153000. It says to be 153thousands of adverce profit variance.
    Okay yeah thanks I understand, I hope i get some marks!
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    (Original post by Frostyjoe)
    Does it matter if you didn't put thousands?
    You'll probably loose 1 mark. I remember a past paper question where I didn't write the thousands & I lost 1 for it :rolleyes:
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    (Original post by bullyy)
    i got 80.9 aswell and so did most of my college so its probably right
    It's wrong lol.
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    (Original post by Majeue)
    It's wrong lol.
    defenitely wrong
 
 
 
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