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    (Original post by samb1234)
    I'm not quite sure what you mean. Do you mean leaving it as the tantheta =forces part?
    Thanks for your reply.

    After completing the question, I realised that when I had tan theta = forces, the book might have wanted me to get the forces in terms of mus and cancel/simplify to get \dfrac{1- \mu_1 \mu 2}{2\mu_1 }

    I have not done that. After getting tan theta in terms of forces I have gotten \dfrac{1- \mu_1 \mu 2}{2\mu_1 } in terms of forces and seen that it is equal to tan theta. I wonder whether this working is valid if it were an exam question.
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    (Original post by Kvothe the arcane)
    Is that fine? It seemed simpler than changing ... into the LHS of the question.
    Technically yes, but it's just not very nice (imo).
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    (Original post by Kvothe the arcane)
    Thanks for your reply.

    After completing the question, I realised that when I had tan theta = forces, the book might have wanted me to get the forces in terms of mus and cancel/simplify to get \dfrac{1- \mu_1 \mu 2}{2\mu_1 }

    I have not done that. After getting tan theta in terms of forces I have gotten \dfrac{1- \mu_1 \mu 2}{2\mu_1 } in terms of forces and seen that it is equal to tan theta. I wonder whether this working is valid if it were an exam question.
    It's the same thing really. Whether you write the forces in terms of mu from the very beginning or turn them into mu's later on it shouldn't make a difference edit: oh sorry i see what you mean now. Technically you can do what you did but i would probably stick to using forces definitions rather than the other way around
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    Zacken and samb1234


    Thank you both . Sorry, I forgot to respond to you yesterday.
 
 
 
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