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    (Original post by pzoDe)
    Attachment 278402

    Take a look at the above image.

    Let's find the area of each triangle individually:

    The area of the triangle on the left side of the diagram is \frac{1}{2}(h)(w)
    And the area of the triangle on the right is \frac{1}{2}(h)(c-w)

    Add them together to get the total area for the large triangle

    \frac{1}{2}(h)(w) + \frac{1}{2}(h)(c-w) = \frac{1}{2}(h)(w+(c-w)) = \frac{1}{2}(h)(c)

    So, as you can see, the area for the large triangle is indeed \frac{1}{2} \times base \times height.

    Image URL: http://www.maths.surrey.ac.uk/hosted...Pythag/alt.gif

    Wow, if you could have said that at the start of the thread, my problem would have been solved.
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    (Original post by zed963)
    Wow, if you could have said that at the start of the thread, my problem would have been solved.
    Haha sorry I only just saw this thread.
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    (Original post by pzoDe)
    Haha sorry I only just saw this thread.
    No problem, as long as I understand it at the end.
 
 
 
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