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STEP Prep Thread 2016 (Mark. II)

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Original post by Zacken

10-12 marks, maybe?


Really? I'd have thought it would be less than that since all it involved was expanding brackets really, there wasn't anything particularly clever about it. The second part was the 'step' part of the question where you actually had to do something clever.
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Original post by krishdesai7
Good luck for tomorrow everyone :smile:. Let's ace it!!!

Also any last minute advice/tips/suggestions anyone?


Original post by Insight314
I feel like it was first exam nerves for me. I could've upped my marks by at least 15 to be at an S if I realised sooner that you had to choose your own constants in Question 2.

Oh well, I hope the same doesn't happen on the exam tomorrow. I hope I can perform much better, and not let exam conditions get to me.

Btw, any last minute advice (like the user before me asked) ? Any Zacken wisdom you could throw at us? :tongue:


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Agreed with not doing well on this paper. Anywho, tomorrow is the one that actually counts. Let's smash it. Try not to do any maths tonight, relax a bit, remember to bring water into tomorrow's exam, do not panic. Don't rush either, take a few minutes to pick out the best questions, go through them methodically.

You'll do fine!
Original post by Zacken
I've posted it twice before on the thread. :tongue:

It's here.


Thanks, I did try going back a few pages and couldnt find it:s-smilie:
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Original post by thebeast123
Thanks @Zacken!! Just to double check, can I get that high for Q9? Got the second part totally wrong and I got the same proof as first part. Thanks again!!


Correct me if I'm wrong but Q9's second part was very small, no? Something about changing a positive to a negative?

Maybe 16 marks is fair.

Original post by smartalan73
Really? I'd have thought it would be less than that since all it involved was expanding brackets really, there wasn't anything particularly clever about it. The second part was the 'step' part of the question where you actually had to do something clever.


There wasn't anything clever but from what I've seen of markschemes, they have to reward work and there was a fair bit of work done in the first part, I can see lots of (M1 M1 A1) for each of n=1, 2, 3 and then M1A1 for n=4, totalling 11 marks.
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Original post by raff97
Thanks, I did try going back a few pages and couldnt find it:s-smilie:


No worries! Edited my post to include a link to the solutions thread if you want to chip in. :biggrin:

(have you finished IA? How was it? :woo: )
Original post by Zacken
Correct me if I'm wrong but Q9's second part was very small, no? Something about changing a positive to a negative?

Maybe 16 marks is fair.



Yes it was, but I think the forces have to be resolved all over again, since the frictional forces change directions, but the idea is the same as part i.
Original post by Zacken
There wasn't anything clever but from what I've seen of markschemes, they have to reward work and there was a fair bit of work done in the first part, I can see lots of (M1 M1 A1) for each of n=1, 2, 3 and then M1A1 for n=4, totalling 11 marks.


Cool well I hope your right, that would make my half attempt at that question seem slightly more worth it
Q3, II , 2006
The last part, how can the result of 2N-1<N+sqroot(N^2-1)<2N be deduced?
Original post by Zacken
Very much agree. Could be a challenger for 2010 or 2013 as 'easiest paper'. Pity I didn't do as well as I should've!


How well did you do? PM if you want
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Original post by shamika
How well did you do? PM if you want

Spoiler

Original post by Zacken
No worries! Edited my post to include a link to the solutions thread if you want to chip in. :biggrin:

(have you finished IA? How was it? :woo: )


Seems all the pure questions have been done, was never a fan of applied so cant help there. sorry!

(Yeah I have. Was alright I guess, will find out how I did on Saturday... arguable easier than STEP II and III if you put the work in throughout the year. certainly less interesting questions compared to STEP!)
So tomorrow do I focus on 2-3 questions the whole time or shall I just poke at questions till I get stuck then move on so I get lots of partial solutions?
(edited 7 years ago)
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Original post by raff97
Yeah I have. Was alright I guess, will find out how I did on Saturday... arguable easier than STEP II and III if you put the work in throughout the year. certainly less interesting questions compared to STEP!


Wow, You must be nervous. :tongue: Hope all goes well!
Original post by Geraer100
Q3, II , 2006
The last part, how can the result of 2N-1<N+sqroot(N^2-1)<2N be deduced?

(N-1)^2 < N^2-1 < N^2, so for N>1...
Original post by Zacken
Wow, You must be nervous. :tongue: Hope all goes well!


Cheers! Good luck with STEP II tomorrow and III later on. Looks like you did well in I so you should be fine.
Can anyone think of a function ff such that f(f(f(x)))=xf(f(f(x)))=x? I can't, not sure if I'm missing something obvious or what.
EDIT: I just realised there was some IMO question about iterating polynomials in this way, interesting...
EDIT 2: Except the trivial solutions.
(edited 7 years ago)
Original post by Farhan.Hanif93
(N-1)^2 < N^2-1 < N^2, so for N>1...

Thanks!
Sorry missed out the 1/2, It should be 2N-1/2<N+sqroot(N^2-1)<2N
Original post by IrrationalRoot
Can anyone think of a function ff such that f(f(f(x)))=xf(f(f(x)))=x i.e. a function that is cyclic with period 3? I can't, not sure if I'm missing something obvious or what.
EDIT: I just realised there was some IMO question about iterating polynomials in this way, interesting...


f(x) = x
(possibly not what you want)
Original post by Geraer100
Thanks!
Sorry missed out the 1/2, It should be 2N-1/2<N+sqroot(N^2-1)<2N

The LHS of that statement is untrue - N=1 shows you that.
Original post by IrrationalRoot
Can anyone think of a function ff such that f(f(f(x)))=xf(f(f(x)))=x i.e. a function that is cyclic with period 3? I can't, not sure if I'm missing something obvious or what.
EDIT: I just realised there was some IMO question about iterating polynomials in this way, interesting...


Surely if f(x) = 1/x then f(f(f(x))) = 1/x ? Or do you mean something else?

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