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    (Original post by lightburns)
    It depends on the wishes of the coma patient. For example, to 'murder' a coma patient depends on their wishes - I would say it is moral to kill someone in a coma if they have asked to be killed. Turning of the life support machine happens all the time, and this is not considered murder, because of pre-consent. So previous consent over what you want done to you can be consensual and therefore not rape.
    To clarify, the OP has said (at some point, in response to another post) that if someone is dead, consent does not need to be given, as they are merely an object after death/have no life/would not impact them.

    Hence, I was wondering if he thought that doing such to a coma patient, who - like a dead body - wouldn't find out and wouldn't suffer emotional/physical trauma at being raped, was morally acceptable also.

    I think we can safely assume that a majority of people would not willingly consent to either scenario though. I was merely curious.
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    (Original post by Boobies.)
    To clarify, the OP has said (at some point, in response to another post) that if someone is dead, consent does not need to be given, as they are merely an object after death/have no life/would not impact them.

    Hence, I was wondering if he thought that doing such to a coma patient, who - like a dead body - wouldn't find out and wouldn't suffer emotional/physical trauma at being raped, was morally acceptable also.

    I think we can safely assume that a majority of people would not willingly consent to either scenario though. I was merely curious.
    Aha, fair enough then. If that's the purpose of the post you made, then I can't argue against it. As I think that necrophilia is morally acceptable with pre-death consent. I take back my argument against you

    The majority of people wouldn't willingly consent to either situation.. but I doubt there's many necrophiliacs about, so maybe the few of us who would consent would be enough to go around :P
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    (Original post by whythehellnot)
    So I've been thinking, is there anything inherently wrong with necrophilia?

    The facts:

    1. No one gets hurt (lets assume that no one finds out about it for a while)
    2. <ost people wouldn't rationally object against using a sex toy.

    IF we are going to get all emotional, that's fine I suppose, but from a rational perspective is there anything morally wrong here?
    Morals are nothing, thus nothing is immoral.
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    (Original post by alharrison4)
    Would you be comfortable knowing that when you were dead someone would gain sexual satisfaction from using your body as a sex object? It's disrespectful to that person in so many ways and just horrible.
    What if, per se, the person had consented before they died?
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    (Original post by mevidek)
    erm the idea is sick. You don't see animals shagging dead corpses do we?
    Yes we do.
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    yeah thats been clarified.
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    As far as I'm concerned the mortal remains of a person are at the very least property and as such should be governed according to property law. If I had a car I'd be pretty pissed off if someone had sex with the exhaust pipe, with a dead relative I'd be furious at the insult to the memory of the deceased, this alone constitutes a moral case to oppose non consensual necrophilia.
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    (Original post by Nefarious)
    As far as I'm concerned the mortal remains of a person are at the very least property and as such should be governed according to property law. If I had a car I'd be pretty pissed off if someone had sex with the exhaust pipe, with a dead relative I'd be furious at the insult to the memory of the deceased, this alone constitutes a moral case to oppose non consensual necrophilia.
    Whose property would the body be?

    Suppose for example, that a man wants to have sex with his dead wife's body, but the parents of the dead wife consider this an insult to her memory and don't want him to do it. Would it be morally acceptable for the man to go ahead with it? Does the body belong to him, or does it belong to the parents, or does it belong to other family members (siblings, children etc.)? Whose wishes take priority?

    This is of course, assuming that the dead wife consented to it before death. Obviously she has rights over her own mortal remains.

    I agree that it is immoral to just go and have sex with someone else's property without their permission - but who owns a dead body?
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    (Original post by whythehellnot)
    So I've been thinking, is there anything inherently wrong with necrophilia?

    The facts:

    1. No one gets hurt (lets assume that no one finds out about it for a while)
    2. &lt;ost people wouldn't rationally object against using a sex toy.

    IF we are going to get all emotional, that's fine I suppose, but from a rational perspective is there anything morally wrong here?

    (Original post by milkytea)
    Consent? There is nothing to consent about, it's dead body ffs.

    From a utilitarian point of view, it seems unlikely to be classed as immoral. The only exception I can think of is if friends/family of the victim find out and it emotionally traumatizes them.

    That doesn't mean it isn't a vile act that should be condemned because frankly it is disturbing.. but immoral? I think not.
    Both of you. Do you want to be shagged when you're dead? no you ****ing sick *******s leave the dead IN PEACE

    REST IN PEACE?

    oh no. LETS **** THEM UP THE ASS
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    (Original post by siwelmail)
    Both of you. Do you want to be shagged when you're dead? no you ****ing sick *******s leave the dead IN PEACE

    REST IN PEACE?

    oh no. LETS **** THEM UP THE ASS
    Do you believe that dead people know what's being done to their bodies?
    When a dead person is getting eaten by worms, does that count as "resting in peace"?
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    (Original post by tazarooni89)
    Do you believe that dead people know what's being done to their bodies?
    And I thought i mentioned the words rest in peace, and that most people when they die want that, rather than to be ****ed by a creep?

    Does someone who does necrophilia on a dead body have a conscious? how can they sleep with themselves if they do something like that?
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    (Original post by siwelmail)
    And I thought i mentioned the words rest in peace, and that most people when they die want that, rather than to be ****ed by a creep?
    I just asked simple yes/no questions. You haven't aswered them.

    Once again:
    Do you believe dead people know what's being done to their bodies?
    When a dead person is getting eaten by worms, does that count as "resting in peace"?

    Does someone who does necrophilia on a dead body have a conscious? how can they sleep with themselves if they do something like that?
    I don't know, that's for a necrophile to answer.
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    (Original post by tazarooni89)
    I just asked simple yes/no questions. You haven't aswered them.

    Once again:
    Do you believe dead people know what's being done to their bodies?
    When a dead person is getting eaten by worms, does that count as "resting in peace"?

    I don't know, that's for a necrophile to answer.
    no.
    no.
    You're a sick freak if you actually seem to be siding that ****
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    I suppose, based on the principle morally wrong means there has to be a victim, I agree with OP. Obviously anyone who does this is a sick **** still.
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    (Original post by siwelmail)
    no.
    no.
    Why do you tell people to leave the dead to "rest in peace", when you believe that:
    1] The dead don't know what's happening to them anyway
    2] The dead cant rest in peace anyway - not while being consumed by bacteria and worms etc.

    You're a sick freak if you actually seem to be siding that ****
    Siding what? I haven't "sided" anything. All I've done is ask questions to find out more about your argument
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    (Original post by tazarooni89)
    Why do you tell people to leave the dead to "rest in peace", when you believe that:
    1] The dead don't know what's happening to them anyway
    2] The dead cant rest in peace anyway - not while being consumed by bacteria and worms etc.
    in response to:
    1) We don't know that, but if their family/friends find out?
    2) The expression rip isn't to do with their body being laid to rest, as a term of rest, as in peaceful, it means they've been put down and their 'soul' or whatever is at rest and there is no angry spirits around



    Siding what? I haven't "sided" anything. All I've done is ask questions to find out more about your argument
    ok i understand that
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    (Original post by siwelmail)
    1) We don't know that, but if their family/friends find out?
    In most cases, I'd imagine their feelings would be hurt.

    Do you believe that the feelings of family and friends take precedence over the wishes of the deceased individual themselves? For example, it is not inconceivalble that a dying person gives their husband/wife permission to perform sex acts on them once they are dead. What if this should occur? Do the family and friends' wishes come first? Or do the deceased individual's wishes come first?

    2) The expression rip isn't to do with their body being laid to rest, as a term of rest, as in peaceful, it means they've been put down and their 'soul' or whatever is at rest and there is no angry spirits around
    I don't understand. You believe that necrophilia brings "angry spirits" around to the person's grave? What kind of angry spirits? What do you mean by that?

    Also, evidently you believe that necrophilia prevents a person's "soul" from resting. Do you not believe that getting eaten by bacteria and worms prevents their soul from resting as well?
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    (Original post by tazarooni89)
    Whose property would the body be?

    Suppose for example, that a man wants to have sex with his dead wife's body, but the parents of the dead wife consider this an insult to her memory and don't want him to do it. Would it be morally acceptable for the man to go ahead with it? Does the body belong to him, or does it belong to the parents, or does it belong to other family members (siblings, children etc.)? Whose wishes take priority?

    This is of course, assuming that the dead wife consented to it before death. Obviously she has rights over her own mortal remains.

    I agree that it is immoral to just go and have sex with someone else's property without their permission - but who owns a dead body?
    It's part of the estate of the deceased as such it's the property of their next of kin unless specified otherwise in the will, this with the qualification that it is to be disposed of according to the wishes of the deceased, in the same way that a will can impose preconditions on the transfer of money and property
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    (Original post by siwelmail)
    And I thought i mentioned the words rest in peace, and that most people when they die want that, rather than to be ****ed by a creep?

    Does someone who does necrophilia on a dead body have a conscious? how can they sleep with themselves if they do something like that?
    Well, as 100% of the population dies, I think they have a wide choice... And therefore, they won't be sleeping with just themselves .

    (sorry, every other post I have made in this thread has been serious. I couldn't help myself. )
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    (Original post by lightburns)
    Well, as 100% of the population dies, I think they have a wide choice... And therefore, they won't be sleeping with just themselves .

    (sorry, every other post I have made in this thread has been serious. I couldn't help myself. )
    no problem im bored of speaking about dead people anyway
 
 
 
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