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    Having some difficulties, could somebody please explain

    Meiosis 1 undergoes a division after replicating at interphase from 4n, to 2 daughter cells which are genetically different. That would make each daughter cell - 2n DIPLOID, as in meiosis 2 there is no replication phase.

    Thus in meiosis 2, the 2 daughter cells then divide into 2 further cells each one being HAPLOID (n), therefore creating 4 haploid cells

    However i read in many textbooks that at the end of meiosis 1, then 2 daughter cells are HAPLOID, how can this be if it has to divide again, without being able to replicate itself in meioisis 2?

    thx
    (please correct me if im wrong)
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    You're wrong (well, actually, the textbook is). In meiosis the parent cell:
    1. replicates (4n)
    2. divides (2n) in meiosis i
    3. divides again (1n) in meiosis ii

    So at the end of meiosis i you have 2 daughter cells of 2n each.
    Hope that helps... your answer sounded spot on so I wouldn't worry, sounds like a mis-print or something,
    skevvybritt x
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    Thanks lots. mis-print, i hope so lol....it was like that in all my notes, i was lookin on internet sites, i asked my teacher and he confussed me hehehe..soo much for having a phd in biology :rolleyes:
 
 
 
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