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Hitlers Foreign Policy help needed UNIT4 (FRI) watch

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    (Original post by siobhan86)
    mite sound stupid question, but what was hitlers ideology (and that of nazi party) - was it unit german speakers together, lebensraum, destroy communism, gain raw materials, revise versailles, aryan racial domination ,etc?

    and, for a question on y he was able to destroy versailles, would u put eu countries appeasement, absyssinia being a favourable context, his opporunistic attitude?

    that seems hard to me personally to answer
    Hitlers main ideology was
    1)reversing treaty of Versailles (November criminals)
    2)Lebensraum
    3)Destroying communism
    I *think* those are the main three, and most of his events go under those 3 categories. The main reason he was able to destroy the versailles was a ) because countries such as Britain did realise that it was actually too harsh to ever be kept to and b) Yes because the league of nations was weak (Britain and France more so than others) and Britain more so than france was determind not to cause war, because they were not ready, and therefore appeased, and because of early appeasement, the league of nations' imposed sanctions and threats meant nothing to Germany and Italy, who were aware that they could act as they pleased, for example bombing Guernica, Abyssinina, Czech, Rhineland you know.Im not sure that his ideology on aryan race etc is all too important? I may be wrong but i dont think, cos the unit is only foriegn policy, but raw materials is a good point in circumstances such as the Spanish Civil War.
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    1. ‘Hitler’s single aim in foreign policy was to expand in the East.’ How far do you agree with this view?- I'd love that. I'd skip chronologically through and highlight the aims on each act of Foreign Policy. The I'd analyse consistently (sustained analysis - Level 4 ) by stating whether it *was* Eastward expansion or; Nationalism, Reuniting german speakers, abolition of Versailles, restoring strength, economic factors etc.

    2. ‘Hitler’s foreign policy successes between 1936 and 1939 rested on his remarkable tactical skills and ability to exploit his opponent’s weaknesses.’ Discuss this view.

    Again - I'd begin in 1936 and work chronologically, explaining *why* he was successful in each act of Foreign Policy and then analysing whether or not this was the "said" quotation or something different.

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    (Original post by siobhan86)
    what about these questions - they are off the edexcel website:
    2. ‘Hitler’s foreign policy successes between 1936 and 1939 rested on his remarkable tactical skills and ability to exploit his opponent’s weaknesses.’ Discuss this view.

    what was mussolini's ideology? - get rid of undesirables, destroy communism, gain an empire.... is that correct?
    Question two is basically, master planner and opportunist. But usually they have those points against one another, so its a bit wierd to say 'and'. But i suppose with 2, you'd just argue with opportunist and then master planner and then conclude which one was probabley more of the truth.
    Mussolini's ideology was basically very similar to Germany (which is why Hitler was so determind on an alliance) Italy had a very big hatred for communism, and expanding in the east, and he had the vision of a strong dictator, and he strived for european dominance.
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    (Original post by becke)
    Im not sure that his ideology on aryan race etc is all too important? I may be wrong but i dont think, cos the unit is only foriegn policy,
    It is relevant in regard to the "inferiority" of the Slav race in Poland etc, whom he deemed only capable of providing for the Aryans.

    Similarly the "Aryan" german-speakers enclosed in Czechoslovakia were "mistreated" by authorities there which apparently was the spark for Hitler's demands for the Sudetenland to be returned. (He issued a protectorate over all Aryan minorities outside the Reich - think along the lines of "How dare they!" treat such "superior" members of society in a bad way...)

    Hope this helps
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    (Original post by Dreama)
    It is relevant in regard to the "inferiority" of the Slav race in Poland etc, whom he deemed only capable of providing for the Aryans.

    Similarly the "Aryan" german-speakers enclosed in Czechoslovakia were "mistreated" by authorities there which apparently was the spark for Hitler's demands for the Sudetenland to be returned. (He issued a protectorate over all Aryan minorities outside the Reich - think along the lines of "How dare they!" treat such "superior" members of society in a bad way...)

    Hope this helps
    Oh thankyou, i didnt know that about Czechslovkia, thought it was merely for expansion! thankyou very much
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    (Original post by becke)
    Oh thankyou, i didnt know that about Czechslovkia, thought it was merely for expansion! thankyou very much
    If it comes up - The Social-Darwinism of the Aryan Race is comparable to the Fascist State under Mussolini too.

    Good luck

    Dreama xxx
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    1. ‘Hitler’s single aim in foreign policy was to expand in the East.’ How far do you agree with this view?

    I would start with mein kampf and show that lebensraum was desired by him from the start

    then i would talk about conciliatory years 1933-36 and how although they appear to not be concerned with eastward expansion, this was hitlers intention as he knew he had to act caustiously in this period, then i would add that Neurath admitted that the real foreign policy would not be addressed until The Rhineland had been digested.

    then i would talk about the year of awareness being important in hitlers nazi turn which focused more on eastward expansion and hossbach memo

    would talk about czech and poland as evidence for eastward expansion

    erm to conclude i would probably write about how hitlers ultimate aim was eastward expansion (and more) but that in order to get that he had to use the pretence of Tof Versaille and make Germany internally strong again and consequently his foreign policy refelcted this


    2. ‘Hitler’s foreign policy successes between 1936 and 1939 rested on his remarkable tactical skills and ability to exploit his opponent’s weaknesses.’ Discuss this view

    i would like this question its just the opportunist vs planner one again but phrased differently and stupidly in my opinion as it combines them both as someone else has mentioned... ah well
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    (Original post by exmoorkatie)
    then i would talk about conciliatory years 1933-36 and how although they appear to not be concerned with eastward expansion, this was hitlers intention as he knew he had to act caustiously in this period, then i would add that Neurath admitted that the real foreign policy would not be addressed until The Rhineland had been digested.
    I think he recongised he had to act cautiously and wait for triggers to act aggressivly after the attempted Anschluss, in Mein Kampft he assumes he will be able to reverse TofV aggressivly, however after the failed Anschluss, he was forced to reconsider his approach.
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    2. ‘Hitler’s foreign policy successes between 1936 and 1939 rested on his remarkable tactical skills and ability to exploit his opponent’s weaknesses.’ Discuss this view.


    1936 success due to Britain’s appeasement and Italian concerns being in Abyssinia, and the French election being 6 weeks away – thus military action/ risk of franco-german war would be unfavourable
    1937 – what happened here other than hossbach memorandum?
    1938 Austria – Britain again appeased with Germany, French Government had fallen during crisis and was therefore in a weak position, and Italy had stated back in 1936 she would not oppose German moves on Austria
    1938 Sudetenland – Britain again appeased with Germany
    1939 Czechoslovakia was a success in that Hitler gained it without war, but Britain then resisted further German moves, e.g. with Poland and Britain announced a guarantee to Poland on 31st march 1939

    to me, it doesnt seem like the opposition had weaknesses really... mayb apart from the fact that the french government had fallen and their position in 1936.... thus, u would have to challenge it a grt deal, or could appeasement be seen as a weak position?

    would u put Hossbach Memo into this - 1937...?

    may b im stupid but i dont really see how this relates to being alike to a 'master planner/ opportunist question'
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    (Original post by siobhan86)
    2. ‘Hitler’s foreign policy successes between 1936 and 1939 rested on his remarkable tactical skills and ability to exploit his opponent’s weaknesses.’ Discuss this view.

    may b im stupid but i dont really see how this relates to being alike to a 'master planner/ opportunist question'
    basically because his remarkable tactical skills implies he planned his moves in foreign policy carefully (master planner) and taking advantage of oponents weaknesses implies that he was an opportunist (implying that he only acting in response to the events occuring around him)
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    (Original post by becke)
    basically because his remarkable tactical skills implies he planned his moves in foreign policy carefully (master planner) and taking advantage of oponents weaknesses implies that he was an opportunist (implying that he only acting in response to the events occuring around him)
    so he did both then - he was a master planner AND opportunist

    but surely there has to be another reason behind his successes other than his opponents weaknesses and his 'remarkable skills' - could this be abyssinia... cos i would imagine in this question, u would have 2 put forward another reason/ reasons as to why he had successes in these years
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    I didnt interpret it as a master planner/opportunist question either. Some points would come into both answers but mine would resolve more around the reasons why he was able to make gains, like the reasons for appeasement and that sort of thing.
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    (Original post by siobhan86)
    so he did both then - he was a master planner AND opportunist

    but surely there has to be another reason behind his successes other than his opponents weaknesses and his 'remarkable skills' - could this be abyssinia... cos i would imagine in this question, u would have 2 put forward another reason/ reasons as to why he had successes in these years
    oh yeah definately. i was just saying it opens up that issues (which is quite a big one) we call the third major point the 'knock out paragraph' which suggests it was something else, and here its most definately appeasement.
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    but abysynnia = opponents weakness, it diverted the allies attention away from Germany whilst it made Italy reliant on Germany, which along with spainish civil war directly led to the rome-berlin axis 1937 ( for whoever wanted to know this is what else happened in 1937!) and then the Anschluss and then Czech and then Past of Steel May 1939
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    thats really interesting i would put in the appeasement stuff in the weakness arguement because Hitler say it as their weaknesses.... but both are valid! its really interesting how people interpret things isnt it!
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    (Original post by exmoorkatie)
    thats really interesting i would put in the appeasement stuff in the weakness arguement because Hitler say it as their weaknesses.... but both are valid! its really interesting how people interpret things isnt it!
    well immediately put appeasement in weaknesses as i did up there, but it could also go into a seperate point i guess. i would like a question on something like that, i dont particuarly want one on german/italian relations.
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    i would love one of german italien relations lol, but i think they have kinda killed that one... i think its come up 3 times already! i swear its going to be something random like all on 1933 or something equally stupid!
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    Opppps i keep cliking the post reply button before im done! grrr

    i would like a why did he achieve Anschluss in 1938 and not 34 question.
    why did he not go to war over Czech but did in poland 1939 would be fabby

    though im thinking it is going to be an ideology one. something like 'it was only after 1937 that hitlers FP became more Nazi' would please me muchly

    erm T of Versaille is all good i suppose

    or a question that says 'Such and such was the only factor influencing Hitlers FP in the years (either 1933-36, 1936 onwards, or indeed the whole course )
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    (Original post by siobhan86)
    2. ‘Hitler’s foreign policy successes between 1936 and 1939 rested on his remarkable tactical skills and ability to exploit his opponent’s weaknesses.’ Discuss this view.

    may b im stupid but i dont really see how this relates to being alike to a 'master planner/ opportunist question'
    In my opinion it isn't explicitly about this. Neither is it limited to those two variables, and I believe one would severely damage their grade if they *only* spoke of Master Planner/Opportunism debate.

    I'd probably use the debate as a conclusion.

    The question is "Why Success?" and the answers they provide are *tactical skills and *opponent's weaknesses.

    I'd work chronologically through the period 36-39 highlighting successful acts of policy and the reasons for their success.

    *Was it a tactical skill?
    *Was it due to the allies' weakness?
    *Or was it something else?

    It would be silly to "group" policies into "These are examples of tactical skill" because a vast amount of policies feature 2 or even multiple reasons for success.

    Dreama xxxx
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    (Original post by exmoorkatie)
    why did he not go to war over Czech but did in poland 1939 would be fabby
    I'd die. I'd honestly die. What would you write for an hour and fifteen on such a specific event!!!! You're a smart ickle cookie girl
 
 
 
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