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    • Thread Starter

    Hi I really need help with what is probably a ridiculously simple question, but I just couldnt find it in all my history books -.-;;

    Right, I know that Khrushchev always had the upper hand in the power struggle of the collective leadership since Stalin's death, but officially he does not have total power until 1958. What is it about 1958 that makes his power complete?

    Is anybody else doing the Edexcel paper for A2 (Stalin and Destalinisation) this friday?

    any help or advice will be greatly appreiciated

    I am not doing this unite and i dont know the answer for this question.. i just know that Khrushchev was a great man..
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