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Reply 20
Small123
Just show him 0.999˙limNk=1N910k10.99\dot{9} \equiv \displaystyle\lim_{N\to \infty}\displaystyle\sum_{k=1}^N \dfrac{9}{10^k}\equiv 1 :p:


"Just". I think with all of this, the discussion should really start with "what is a real number". How do we define them in terms of decimal expansions
1/3=0.333...
(1/3)*3=0.3333...*3=0.999...
but (1/3)*3 =1 so 0.999...=1

But I guess whether you agree that 0.999...=1 depends on how you define infinity...

I've always thought 0.999...=1 simply because if you want to say 1=0.999...+(1/10^∞ ), (1/10^∞ ) does not exist as 0.999... continues to infinity (never ends) which means (1/10^∞ )=0, and so 0.999...=1.

I don't know if that makes sense but that was what I came up with...

So I think this proof (?) is valid:

n=0.999...
10n=9.999...
10n-n=9n=9.0
n=1

Multiplying n by 10 does not shift the "last 9" up a decimal place, simpy because the "last 9" does not exist.
Life is easier when you define what 'rules' real numbers must obey and properties of sets of real numbers. Talking about the 'last digit' and throwing around infinite sums willy nilly is a biy of a mathematical faux pas.
Reply 23
SimonM
That "proof" suggests that we have a well defined set of operations on infinite decimal expansions, which for some people (perhaps your maths teacher included) is not a trivial assumption.

I was under the impression arithmetic was defined for all real and complex numbers. Even if not, it works for all other varieties of reccuring decimal expansion...
And equally, there is the proof by considering 1/3 = 0.333333... 3*0.33333... = 0.9999999... = 3/3 = 1.
Reply 24
Yay, meaningless rhetoric.
Bobifier
I was under the impression arithmetic was defined for all real and complex numbers. Even if not, it works for all other varieties of reccuring decimal expansion...
And equally, there is the proof by considering 1/3 = 0.333333... 3*0.33333... = 0.9999999... = 3/3 = 1.


Things aren't so nice when introduce infinty though - for instance the sum

(1)nn \displaystyle \sum \frac{(-1)^n}{n} has different values regarding the order you sum the terms - yet if this was a fininte sum this would not be the case.

You can't really say anything "works" for an infinte decimal expansions until you have prroved such an expansions is well defined and any operation you happen to do with it is well defined.

We clearly have differing interpretations of proof.
Dadeyemi
If the limit exists, it is a number that arithmetic works fine on, this limit clearly does not exist, but I see the point you are trying to demonstrate.


erm yeah it does exist.
I don't like these threads.

But, some numbers you can't do that trick. Certainly, square root of 2 and say pi.

Although, you can write both as a infinite sum in finite terms i.e. using notation. But, some numbers you can't do that i.e. undescribable numbers.

P.S. Anyway, 0.9999...=1
Reply 28
DeanK22
erm yeah it does exist.


thought you wrote (-1)^n :p:
Does there exist a real number x such that 0.9999....<x<10.9999.... < x < 1?
SimonM
"Just". I think with all of this, the discussion should really start with "what is a real number". How do we define them in terms of decimal expansions.
This. Won't happen, though.
Reply 31
Original post by P &#8594
Does there exist a real number x such that 0.9999....<x<10.9999.... < x < 1?


Of all the methods of trying to prove this, looking at it this way makes the most sense
Original post by P &#8594
Does there exist a real number x such that 0.9999....<x<10.9999.... < x < 1?

munn
Of all the methods of trying to prove this, looking at it this way makes the most sense


One can argue that there exists no x because 0.999... is adjacent to 1 so I don't see any convincing element in this proof to show 0.999...=1. Isn't this just back to square one?
Reply 33
That is not true, however. Given any two distinct real numbers a and b, where a<ba < b, we can always a third, distinct, real number c such that a<c<ba < c < b. For example, c=12(a+b)\displaystyle c = \frac{1}{2}(a + b).

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