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    Hello,

    I am using the same Kaplan book but in the edition I have the sentence is

    Neither of us is living off campus this semester because the rent were too high.

    The possible answers for what is wrong,

    a) of us
    b) is
    c) off campus
    d) were

    According to the previous thread and other grammar references in the web "Neither of us is" is grammatically correct. According to the book the answer is a). My problem: to me both sentences,

    1- Neither of us is living off campus this semester because the rent were too high.

    2- Neither is living off campus this semester because the rent were too high.

    Look grammatically correct. I don't see any grammatical problem on any of the two. So I guess that my question is, is this just another misprint or what would suggest that 2- is "better" than 1-?

    Thank you in advance for your time.

    Regards,

    Fernando.

    According to KAPLAN's website, there is a misprint in the page,

    The correct answer to the question is B, not A as
    indicated.

    However this takes me to the question, how is possible that "Neither of us ARE living off campus this semester because the rents were too high". I have made a little research at google.com. I can find both "Neither of us ARE" + gerund and "Neither of us IS" + gerund. Which of the two is right?

    Thanks,

    Fernando.

    The cases are too confused. One is in the present, one in the past.

    This should be:

    Neither of us is living off campus this semester because the rent is too high.

    Thank you.

    Best regards,

    Fernando
 
 
 
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