I need to prove the mean for Rayleigh distribution and this is how far i've gotten:
v = variance
v*sqrt(2) Integral(sqrt(u)*exp(-u)) du
Now I'm guessing that we need to use the property:
Integral (exp(-x)*x^(-.5)) = sqrt(pi)
but somehow it doesn't seem to fit it in ..I can't figure out the manipulation to reach the result.
Rayleigh distribution mean watch
- Thread Starter
- 30-01-2010 14:42
- 30-01-2010 14:51
Integrate by parts?