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    Obviously FPTP for the PM, but with seats in Parliament how do the percentages work?

    Is it cube law? So if votes are divided A:B, seats will be divided A³:B³ ?

    I think that's outdated? I'm a bit confused tbh. How does a party get the percentage of seats it does? What's the connection between amount of votes and amount of seats, or is it percentage of votes relating to percentage of seats?
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    It's FPTP for every seat in Parliament, our PM is elected indirectly. Or have I misunderstood your question?

    EDIT: The country is divided into constituencies, you vote in your constituency for a candidate, not a party and the party with most candidates elected "wins".
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    ALL seats are allocated via FPTP. Each constituency votes for an MP; the candidate with a simple majority from each constiuency gains a seat. The party with the greatest number of seats by convention forms government, and by convention the PM will come from this party and from the Commons (as an elected MP).

    EDIT: Remember that parties are not part of the constitution - they're simply there by tradition and convention. Each MP is an elected individual, which is why you can have independants in parliament.
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    (Original post by Bubbles*de*Milo)
    Obviously FPTP for the PM, but with seats in Parliament how do the percentages work?

    Is it cube law? So if votes are divided A:B, seats will be divided A³:B³ ?

    I think that's outdated? I'm a bit confused tbh. How does a party get the percentage of seats it does? What's the connection between amount of votes and amount of seats, or is it percentage of votes relating to percentage of seats?
    I find it hard to believe that someone who's in their 2nd year of Politics at QMUL didn't even know that Parliament is elected by FPTP.

    What do you live under a rock? Or not speak English?
    Seriously worrying - QM's reputation has just gone down as far as I'm concerned.
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    The % is the amount of seats they win, using FPTP, out of however many seats (constituencies) are in the country. About 650.
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    (Original post by jakethomas991)
    I find it hard to believe that someone who's in their 2nd year of Politics at QMUL didn't even know that Parliament is elected by FPTP.

    What do you live under a rock? Or not speak English?
    Seriously worrying - QM's reputation has just gone down as far as I'm concerned.
    Was just thinking that actually, lol...
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    absolute majority or is it popular..
    whoever gets the most in each constituency gets it.
    i think. you study politics 2nd year?!
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    I'm suprised you don't know this, Bubbles.
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    Don't bother about the precentage business. Basically, one MP equals one-seat. There are around 650 seats in the HoC atm. In 1997, Labour won something like 400, so they got that many seats, while the Tories had the 2nd largest share of the HoC since their candidates won the 2nd most constituencies.
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    Parliament = FPTP --> majority elects PM

    As FPTP is such an outdated and undemocratic principle, it confuses many people about the % of seats and votes. As in the last UK election, the % of votes between Tories and Labour was nearly the same. However, Labour managed to 'win' more seats and held (ehm still holds) the majority in the parliament (i.e. % of seats).
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    I thought it was FPTP, but then this confused the hell out of me;

    "FPTP elections in Britain have usually had the virtue of producing clear results and single-party government. They have sometimes yielded absurdly exaggerated majorities and they have been very hard on small parties. But for a long time the system managed to treat the major contestants equally, giving to each in their turn victory with an inflated majority. The Cube law.......... blah blah A:B makes A³:B³"
    IF it was just FPTP (like I thought) then there wouldn't be 'absurdly exaggerated majorities' then would there surely, it would just be... democratic?

    And I know how MPs are elected... :nothing:

    (Original post by Snookercraze)
    Don't bother about the precentage business. Basically, one MP equals one-seat. There are around 650 seats in the HoC atm. In 1997, Labour won something like 400, so they got that many seats, while the Tories had the 2nd largest share of the HoC since their candidates won the 2nd most constituencies.
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    (Original post by jakethomas991)
    I find it hard to believe that someone who's in their 2nd year of Politics at QMUL didn't even know that Parliament is elected by FPTP.

    What do you live under a rock? Or not speak English?
    Seriously worrying - QM's reputation has just gone down as far as I'm concerned.

    I'm, erm, sure they care. :top:
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    Consider a grossly oversimplified example to see why it's undemocratic.

    Everyone votes. Party A wins every constituency seat with 51% of the eligable vote. Therefore party A has every seat in the commons, with only 51% of the popular vote.
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    (Original post by andy5788)
    Consider a grossly oversimplified example to see why it's undemocratic.

    Everyone votes. Party A wins every constituency seat with 51% of the eligable vote. Therefore party A has every seat in the commons, with only 51% of the popular vote.
    That's a rubbish example of why it's allegedly undemocratic. The main criticism of FPTP is that it doesn't necessarily represent the majority. In your above example, you're saying that there is a majority :rolleyes:
 
 
 
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