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Edexcel Maths C3 watch

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    (Original post by Ohhai)
    Jan 2010 for sure. Well done on your marks.
    Thanks, although I have done that paper before. Did get 75/75 . If that's as hard as it'll get, I'm feeling confident!
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    Can anyone lead me to where the January 2010 C3 Paper is? I seriously cannot find it and I've tried for ages... :cry:
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    (Original post by fionaflowers)
    with that identity, if you divide it by sin^2x you will get cot^2x and cosec^2x and if you divide it by cos^2x you will get tan^2x and sec^2x

    with the compound angles, if you let a=b in e.g cos(A+B)
    you'll get cos2x = cos^2x - sin^2x
    then you can rearrange the cos^2x + sin^2x = 1 identity to get the other indentities for cos2x
    i hope this makes sense
    You seem to know your stuff! what are you hoping to get tomorrow?
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    (Original post by mouldy)
    From looking at the past papers they are quite unlikely, what dont you understand about them?
    give an example and lets see if we can help!
    umm this q from Jan 2007...
    y=arccos x (-1<x<1) (or equal to) (0<y<pie)
    a) express arcsin x in term of y. (2)
    b) Hence evaluate arccos x + arcsin x. Give answer in term of pie. (1)

    so few marks so i must be reading too far into it...

    any help would be v. appreciated...

    cheers
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    I really want 100 ums, what kind of mark do you usually need for that?
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    (Original post by Narik)
    Can anyone lead me to where the January 2010 C3 Paper is? I seriously cannot find it and I've tried for ages... :cry:

    http://www.thestudentroom.co.uk/show...&postcount=683
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    ****'s sake. There is no way I am going to pass this exam tomorrow

    I actually have forgotten everything!
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    (Original post by thecityscape)
    I really want 100 ums, what kind of mark do you usually need for that?
    It depends on the paper but usually 70+
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    (Original post by mouldy)
    It depends on the paper but usually 70+
    I think it is definitely doable as long as there is no ridiculous function or transformation of a function question. Also do we have to prove by contradiction for c3?
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    BRING IT :woo:
    C4 is gonna be a failure so i'm aiming for 100, so I'll need 80 in C4.
    :sigh:
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    (Original post by Loz17)
    Only if it applies to the same part i.e both are function changes or both are variable changes. Rule of thumb seems to be do it in the oder the question says to do it.
    I don't think it has ever come up but you would do it in the reverse order for two horizontal transformations

    i.e f(2x-3)

    intuitively you would enlarge by a factor of 0.5 then translate 3 right. Whereas, you should shift 3 right then squash by 2.
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    just starting my first past paper attempt :/
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    (Original post by !"£$%)
    umm this q from Jan 2007...
    y=arccos x (-1<x<1) (or equal to) (0<y<pie)
    a) express arcsin x in term of y. (2)
    b) Hence evaluate arccos x + arcsin x. Give answer in term of pie. (1)

    so few marks so i must be reading too far into it...

    any help would be v. appreciated...

    cheers
    y=arcosx
    x=cosy
    as cos is pie/2 out of faze with sin
    x=sin(pie/2-y)
    arcsinx=pie/2-y
    arcosx + arcsinx= y + Pie/ 2 -y= Pie/2
    I Hope that makes sense!
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    (Original post by Arsey)
    I don't think it has ever come up but you would do it in the reverse order for two horizontal transformations

    i.e f(2x-3)

    intuitively you would enlarge by a factor of 0.5 then translate 3 right. Whereas, you should shift 3 right then squash by 2.
    I don't think its on the spec tbh but yes thats correct for them.
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    (Original post by thecityscape)
    I think it is definitely doable as long as there is no ridiculous function or transformation of a function question. Also do we have to prove by contradiction for c3?
    I hope not as i have no idea what that even is!
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    well it has sort of come up but you could use other methods to sketch

    An exam question was sketch ln(4-2x) for example. However, if you know the general shape it is easier to think about the asymptotes and where it cuts the axes.
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    here are the previous A and B boundaries


    June 2005 61 53
    January 2006 61 53
    June 2006 56 49
    January 2007 58 50
    June 2007 59 52
    January 2008 64 56
    June 2008 64 57
    January 2009 60 52
    June 2009 67 59
    January 2010 59 52
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    (Original post by mouldy)
    y=arcosx
    x=cosy
    as cos is pie/2 out of faze with sin
    x=sin(pie/2-y)
    arcsinx=pie/2-y
    arcosx + arcsinx= y + Pie/ 2 -y= Pie/2
    I Hope that makes sense!
    perfect... cheers ur a lifesaver....
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    (Original post by Arsey)
    here are the previous A and B boundaries


    June 2005 61 53
    January 2006 61 53
    June 2006 56 49
    January 2007 58 50
    June 2007 59 52
    January 2008 64 56
    June 2008 64 57
    January 2009 60 52
    June 2009 67 59
    January 2010 59 52
    reassuringly low... surprised january's wasn't higher...
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    (Original post by thecityscape)
    I really want 100 ums, what kind of mark do you usually need for that?
    4 of the last 5 papers it has been 75/75 for 100UMS


    check, double check, triple check!
 
 
 
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