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    Please help! A prominent man has been married for 17 times. None of d wives has died so far and there has neither been a seperation nor any divorce, yet he is not a polygamist. How is this possible? Your contributions will be highly appreciated. Thanks.
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    Married to men?
    Had a sex change recently?
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    (Original post by there's too much love)
    Married to men?
    Had a sex change recently?
    no lol he's married to women
    I'm not sure abt the sex change but that makes a lot of sense thanks
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    would renewing his wedding vows every year count as multiple marriages do you think?
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    i'm not sure about that cuz the sentence says ''none of the wives'' has...blah blah blah so there's more than one woman involved...thanks for the idea anyway
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    He's marrying them in different countries.
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    be that as it may, the fact still remains that he's married to more than one wive simultaneously
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    (Original post by Emperor)
    be that as it may, the fact still remains that he's married to more than one wive simultaneously
    The only other option would be annulments, but strictly speaking that means the marriage never happened, so he wouldn't have been married 17 times.
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    None of the wives can mean there are no wives.
    None of the dogs in my house get fed. But then there are no dogs in my house...
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    (Original post by there's too much love)
    None of the wives can mean there are no wives.
    None of the dogs in my house get fed. But then there are no dogs in my house...
    Except that doesn't explain how he's been married 17 times.
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    (Original post by there's too much love)
    None of the wives can mean there are no wives.
    None of the dogs in my house get fed. But then there are no dogs in my house...
    so you're saying he's married to men? cuz clearly he's been married 17times lol
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    (Original post by Jordan656)
    The only other option would be annulments, but strictly speaking that means the marriage never happened, so he wouldn't have been married 17 times.
    yh i understand your point..the only reasonable point left is the gender change lol
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    that doesn't work because Polygamy isn't restricted to heterosexual couples only - it applies to homosexuals too. I'm telling you it's different countries.
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    (Original post by Jordan656)
    that doesn't work because Polygamy isn't restricted to heterosexual couples only - it applies to homosexuals too. I'm telling you it's different countries.
    That's true...
    ...is it possible he's had amnesia, or 'died' 17 times?

    OP is that the exact wording of the question?
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    (Original post by Emperor)
    Please help! A prominent man has been married for 17 times. None of d wives has died so far and there has neither been a seperation nor any divorce, yet he is not a polygamist. How is this possible? Your contributions will be highly appreciated. Thanks.
    I LOVE RIDDLES!!! :woo: He's a priest who marries the women to others. I think you were meant to write that the man has married 17 times. :P
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    (Original post by 130500)
    I LOVE RIDDLES!!! :woo: He's a priest who marries the women to others. I think you were meant to write that the man has married 17 times. :P
    I asked them to write it word for word for this reason. That will be it, nice thinking though .
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    (Original post by 130500)
    I LOVE RIDDLES!!! :woo: He's a priest who marries the women to others. I think you were meant to write that the man has married 17 times. :P
    wow that actually makes a lot of sense lol thanx:p:
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    (Original post by Emperor)
    wow that actually makes a lot of sense lol thanx:p:
    You're welcome
 
 
 
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