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Why is French unlike other European Languages? Watch

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    Hey, i was wondering why French is is riddeled with differences from other European Romance languages?

    Someone mentioned something about the Romans injecting some latin into the language when they conqoured Gaul? But then presumabley all other EU contries would have this latin element too as the Roman Empire dominated them all?
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    What kinds of differences? Yes there are differences between French and Spanish, but then there are differences between Spanish and Italian.

    And yes, French was heavily influenced by Latin. But the Romans only conquered western and southern areas of mainland Europe, as well as England. Germanic languages and Scandinavian countries were not so heavily affected as the Romans never conquered them. Romance languages (derived from the Romans) like French and Romanian survive to this day, so they all share some characteristics.
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    (Original post by cactussed)
    What kinds of differences? Yes there are differences between French and Spanish, but then there are differences between Spanish and Italian.

    And yes, French was heavily influenced by Latin. But the Romans only conquered western and southern areas of mainland Europe, as well as England. Germanic languages and Scandinavian countries were not so heavily affected as the Romans never conquered them. Romance languages (derived from the Romans) like French and Romanian survive to this day, so they all share some characteristics.
    I agree. There are many similarities between the Latin-influenced languages. If you are talking about grammatical differences, German is much more different to other European languages than French.
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      (Original post by Athelstan)
      Hey, i was wondering why French is is riddeled with differences from other European Romance languages?

      Someone mentioned something about the Romans injecting some latin into the language when they conqoured Gaul? But then presumabley all other EU contries would have this latin element too as the Roman Empire dominated them all?
      The Romans didn't merely inject Latin when they conquered- by the 5th century the Gaulish tongue had been almost completely wiped out in favour of it. This doesn't really help in answering your question, though; the reason Modern French is so different from languages such as Italian, Spanish, Portuguese etc. is because of the way in which it strayed from these Latin roots in a more dramatic way.

      Soon after Vulgar Latin became the general language of Gaul, Western Europe (including Gaul) was invaded by a number of Germanic tribes. These tribes decided to learn Latin, rather than trying to impose their Germanic languages on the population, but the result was that their speech was largely influenced by their Germanic roots (i.e. in terms of accent, word order etc.). As members of the tribes often occupied prestigious positions in society, these variations were more likely to filter through into the general population. Hence the language gradually became more Germanic, to the extent that by the 8th century, it could no longer be recognised, or officially classified, as Latin. Hope that helps!
     
     
     
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