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    Hi guys, appreciate your thoughts on this question

    If a rich country and a poor country trade with each other, will the rich be exploiting the poor?
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    No.

    Trade makes everyone better off (in theory atleast)
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    Define exploitation.

    In my opinion no, but whilst exploitation might not be an issue, the rich country is not necessarily helping the poor country (to the best of its ability or in the "best" way - if there is one).
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    Poor people in the rich country would loose their jobs since they cannot compete with cheap labour in the poor country.
    Wages of poor people in the poor country will increase.
    Rich people in the rich country might be better off as they can buy cheaper goods.
    I guess so..
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    (Original post by turn and fall)
    No.

    Trade can make everyone better off (in theory atleast)
    Fixed.



    can't believe i post this twice in a week or so, but 04:00-05:00 fits so perfectly.
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    it certainly depends on how you define exploitation and fairness.
    Say that 1 pound is very reasonably paid for shoe makers working 1 hour in many countries but it is ridiculously unacceptable in the UK.
    Hence, as both sides are happy about the wage, if you think the difference in payment due to regional difference is fine, then there is no global-trading exploitation; otherwise, there is.
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    Theory: Trade between a rich country and a poor country can benefit both of them.

    Further explanation: There is no gurantee that gains from trade will be shared equally by the trading partners. Eg: The rich country might try to dominate the poorer country and might gain most of the benefits.

    Regards,
    Pradeepthi Bommidala.
 
 
 
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