1. having a hard time figuring out. I know the answer if infinite but having a hard time proving it
2. tan x = cot (.5pi - x) did not help
3. tried substituting t = 1\x got stuck
limit (cos(1\x))|tan x| x--> .5pi Watch
- Thread Starter
- 05-12-2010 20:10
- 06-12-2010 05:38
What does cos(1/x) tend to (hint: Use the continuity of cos(1/x) in some interval past 0)? Call this value a. Then there is a delta>0 such that cos(1/x)>a/2 for x in the delta neighbourhood of pi/2.
Last edited by nuodai; 06-12-2010 at 12:54.
- 06-12-2010 12:52