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    I'm not looking to discuss the biology of sexuality, but more the concept.

    I've heard from some that constantly being attracted to the opposite sex would make you heterosexual. So, a man attracted to a woman, for example. However, if a man was attracted to a masculine person, who turned out to be a woman, would they still be heterosexual?

    I've heard from others that being attracted to a certain gender determines what sexuality you are. So if you were a man, attracted to femininity, that would make you heterosexual, and being attracted to masculinity would make you homosexual. However, if you were a biological man, who considered himself feminine, who had a relationship with another man who considered himself masculine, is it a hetero or homosexual relationship? In this view, it would be heterosexual. In the former, it would be homosexual.

    Looking at this, how do you define sexuality? Do you define it at all?
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    Possibly culturally determined? Homosexuality in an Ancient Greek polis was very different to homosexuality today.
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    I do
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    I think genes?
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    Genes obviously not, since evolution would have gotten rid of homosexuality ages ago.

    I personally think our genetic inherent sexual attraction is asexual - not dependant on the gender of the subject of attraction (making us all originally bisexual). Seems more likely to me that cultural pressure is responsible for the prevalence of heterosexuality today, and each individual's sexuality is likely the result of 'nutrure'-al factors.

    I think if we plotted the Kinsey Scale on the x-axis and frequency on the y-, assuming we were able to control for culture and such - we're not - we'd get a nice bell curve. That's just my theory though..

    PS - won't lie, i'm heterosexual, and the possibility of becoming bi- or homo-sexual kind of disturbs me. Don't have any problem with it in other people, just for myself. Maybe cus I like the other sex too much but again I think it's all nurture.
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    How normal you are.
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    I like the way people are answering this thread based on what they are studying/want to study at uni :yep:
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    (Original post by a daedalus)
    Genes obviously not, since evolution would have gotten rid of homosexuality ages ago.

    I personally think our genetic inherent sexual attraction is asexual - not dependant on the gender of the subject of attraction (making us all originally bisexual). Seems more likely to me that cultural pressure is responsible for the prevalence of heterosexuality today, and each individual's sexuality is likely the result of 'nutrure'-al factors.

    I think if we plotted the Kinsey Scale on the x-axis and frequency on the y-, assuming we were able to control for culture and such - we're not - we'd get a nice bell curve. That's just my theory though..

    PS - won't lie, i'm heterosexual, and the possibility of becoming bi- or homo-sexual kind of disturbs me. Don't have any problem with it in other people, just for myself. Maybe cus I like the other sex too much but again I think it's all nurture.
    It could be genetic though?
    It could be evolution to stop the planet over populating?
    But I think social aspects have an impact too.
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    Sexuality as a concept only came into existence in the 17th or 18th century, it's not that old.

    Currently there are two ways: sexual and romantic.

    You could be straight sexual, but bi romantic or even gay romantic. Meaning you want to **** the opposite sex, but only have feelings for your own sex.

    It's all rather complicated. I view it on a sliding scale of bisexuality, personally, as that covers all genders, including the inbetween bits. I also happen to like androgyny, so.
 
 
 
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