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    If Yed = (% change in income)/(% change in quantity demanded) = (Y/Q)*((change in Q)/Change in Y)), does this mean that ANY Engel curve that passes through the origin (if it's a straight line) will have a Yed of exactly one?

    Also, a market Engel curve is the average income of an economy per time period on the Y axis and some good on the x axis, if we assumed that everybody in the economy had the same preferences towards whatever goods, could we hoizontally sum up the individual Engel curves to derive the market Engel curve or not?
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    Didn't think I'd get neg repped for that.
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    (Original post by Tallon)
    Didn't think I'd get neg repped for that.
    There we go. Corrected.
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    (Original post by .ACS.)
    There we go. Corrected.
    Ha, thanks. I wasn't that bothered but I just thought it was weird. I doubt I'll get a reply to this question after such a long time.
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    Lmao at someone negging the question
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    (Original post by Chrrye)
    Lmao at someone negging the question
    Even my post saying it's weird to get neg repped got neg repped LOL.
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    LOL^^^^

    BTW can someone help me please... i dont know what an engel curve is...

    isnt it the same as a supply and demand diagram??
    what does it work with YED XED PED?

    Im so confused =(... please help!...
 
 
 
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