I was wondering if anyone could explain, from the following information that we put z=0, when I have always, when given the information that follows thought we could let z equal anything and so let z = 1.
We have, with:
So we can infer:
We also have:
So we still have the same equations as before.
I thought in a case like this that z could take any value so we let z = 1. But z = 0, can anyone explain why? I think I should point out that v_1 and v_2 need to be linearly independent, so if putting z = 0 makes them linearly independent, could someone explain why.
Help with this generalised eigenvector Watch
- Thread Starter
Last edited by TheBhramaBull; 24-12-2010 at 14:22.
- 24-12-2010 14:16
- 24-12-2010 17:59
. However, letting z=0 makes orthogonal to , so it may be preferable to let z=0.
In reference to your linear independence bit at the end - do you know the definition of linear independence? If you can visualise how a set of linearly independent vectors in looks, then it should be fairly easy to see when and are linearly independent.