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In AV, what would happen if everyone only voted for one candidate? watch

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    Just popped into my mind early, i had a quick search and couldn't find the answer on here.

    Say we do get AV, and as you are not forced to rank your candidates in order, you can just vote for your number 1, that's what everyone does, and then it turns out nobody got over 50% with no second preference votes.
    What happens then?
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    Whoever has the most votes

    A way of thinking about it is: you take out the person with the least votes, and redistribute according to their voter's second preferences. Except they have no second preferences so they get removed. And as still nobody has 50% then you keep "redistributing" (but in this case removing) the votes of the candidates with the least votes.
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    This is what I plan to do if we ever adopt AV. I only want my first choice, I do not want anyone else.
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    It'd be no different to what we have now then - a little pointless and not really proportionate. I suppose it relies on the idea that people will have a preference when they're voting!
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    yeh what fluteflute says.
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    (Original post by fluteflute)
    Whoever has the most votes

    A way of thinking about it is: you take out the person with the least votes, and redistribute according to their voter's second preferences. Except they have no second preferences so they get removed. And as still nobody has 50% then you keep "redistributing" (but in this case removing) the votes of the candidates with the least votes.


    But correct me if i'm wrong, but i'm thought AV meant the candidate HAD to get over 50%?
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    (Original post by swarfliam)
    But correct me if i'm wrong, but i'm thought AV meant the candidate HAD to get over 50%?
    No, not always.
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    (Original post by meenu89)
    No, not always.

    Are you sure?
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    (Original post by swarfliam)
    But correct me if i'm wrong, but i'm thought AV meant the candidate HAD to get over 50%?
    The system is often marketed like that, but it does depend on your definition.

    So you eliminate the candidates with the least votes and redistribute their preferences. But if there are no second preferences to redistribute then the number of people the 50% is out of goes down.
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    (Original post by swarfliam)
    Are you sure?
    Completely non-scientific but they had a debate and an election on Radio 5 live debate about AV on Wednesday. They had two elections; one using FPTP and the other AV. The Labour candidate who won, did not get 50% of the vote under AV.
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    (Original post by swarfliam)
    Are you sure?
    (Original post by Electoral Commission Leaflet)
    Because voters don’t have to rank all of the
    candidates, an election can be won under the
    ‘alternative vote’ system with less than half the total
    votes cast.

    Source
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    (Original post by littlemeera)
    It'd be no different to what we have now then - a little pointless and not really proportionate. I suppose it relies on the idea that people will have a preference when they're voting!
    In Australia it's mandatory. The idea is that this would prompt candidates to campaign harder and MP's to do more, but that presupposes that people would be willing to vote for more than one party.
    There's no evidence they would, but there's no hard evidence they wouldn't.

    I can see euro-sceptic Tories voting for Ukip or The Libertarian Party or vice versa, alternatively pro-EU Tories voting Lib Dem. Lib Dem's voting Tory, or Libertarian. Then there's Labour, where old school Labourites may vote for various socialist party variations, or dare I say it the BNP. Alternatively the more progressive Labour members may vote for the Green Party.
    It's hard to say how well it will work, but it would be more effective if it was like Australia.
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    I've heard people saying that the good thing about AV is that the party that wins has support from at least 50% of the voters (that must be assuming everyone ranks every party). But that seems like complete crap to me because it's assuming that if you put a party second, or third, or 4th, etc. that you actually support them to some extent. I imagine in most cases people will only want one party in power, and their other votes will be in order of which parties they hate the least. For example Labour could get the seat with 50% after the 3rd round or something, but plenty of that 50% that "voted" for Labour, only did so because they don't hate them as much as the BNP.
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    (Original post by swarfliam)
    But correct me if i'm wrong, but i'm thought AV meant the candidate HAD to get over 50%?
    Yes, of votes remaining.

    Let us imagine there's 100 votes in the constituency and people only voted for 1 choice...

    Party A: 40
    Party B: 3
    Party C: 17
    Party D: 28
    Party E: 7
    Party F: 5

    Here, 50 are needed to win. No-one is eligible and so candidate with the least votes removed (B), votes allocated to next preference and re-counted:

    Party A: 40
    Party C: 17
    Party D: 28
    Party E: 7
    Party F: 5

    Now 49 are required to win, still no winner and thus repeat the process:

    Party A: 40
    Party C: 17
    Party D: 28
    Party E: 7

    Now 46 votes required, but still no winner, so repeat the process again:

    Party A: 40
    Party C: 17
    Party D: 28

    43 required now, but still no winner, so do it again:

    Party A: 40
    Party D: 28

    Now 34 votes needed to cross 50% threshold. Party A has 40, which beats the threshold and A's member is elected.
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    The above is true.
 
 
 
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