Turn on thread page Beta
    • Thread Starter

    (last question I swear! :rolleyes: )

    So I've got z\bar{z} and I need to show that it's nowhere differentiable on D(1;\frac{1}{2}).

    I thought of parametrising using \phi(t) = 1 + e^{it} then using \displaystyle\lim_{h\to 0} \dfrac{f(z+h)-f(z)}{h} to show that the limit isn't uniquely defined, but this seems messy and flawed (since I think I'm only proving this on the disc rather than inside it).

    Using CR eqns I'd be proving it, but I wouldn't be proving it specifically for the given disc... any suggestions?

    Using CR you can prove it for everywhere except 0. (And since 0 isn't in your disc, you've proved it for your disc).
Submit reply
Turn on thread page Beta
Updated: April 8, 2011

University open days

  1. University of Cambridge
    Christ's College Undergraduate
    Wed, 26 Sep '18
  2. Norwich University of the Arts
    Undergraduate Open Days Undergraduate
    Fri, 28 Sep '18
  3. Edge Hill University
    Faculty of Health and Social Care Undergraduate
    Sat, 29 Sep '18
Which accompaniment is best?
Useful resources

Make your revision easier


Maths Forum posting guidelines

Not sure where to post? Read the updated guidelines here


How to use LaTex

Writing equations the easy way

Student revising

Study habits of A* students

Top tips from students who have already aced their exams

Study Planner

Create your own Study Planner

Never miss a deadline again

Polling station sign

Thinking about a maths degree?

Chat with other maths applicants

Can you help? Study help unanswered threads

Groups associated with this forum:

View associated groups

The Student Room, Get Revising and Marked by Teachers are trading names of The Student Room Group Ltd.

Register Number: 04666380 (England and Wales), VAT No. 806 8067 22 Registered Office: International House, Queens Road, Brighton, BN1 3XE

Write a reply...
Reputation gems: You get these gems as you gain rep from other members for making good contributions and giving helpful advice.