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    why did the allies agree with the terms of the treaty of versailles
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    They were forced to. If they didn't sign the treaty war would resume. The people who signed the treaty were called the 'November criminals'
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    The Allies agreed with the terms of the Treaty of Versailles because they wanted to be repaid for the money and men they had lost fighting a war which they saw as been caused by Germany and her allies.
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    (Original post by McNicholl)
    They were forced to. If they didn't sign the treaty war would resume. The people who signed the treaty were called the 'November criminals'
    :curious:

    Firstly - 'They' were not forced to - the Axis were forced to, not the Allies. The Allies made the Treaty.

    Second - They were only called the 'November criminals' by the Nazis, it's hardly a term which would be applied to them outside of Nazi rhetoric. Context!
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    Assuming OP does mean Allies, which would make the question a bit more interesting if a bit bonkers -

    France wanted reparations. Bad. Germany made France bleed after defeating it in the earlier 1870 war (france had to pay, and lost alsace-lorraine too), so it was only natural they wanted revenge.
    USA... it served absolutely nobody, least of all them, if europe collapsed economically. France and GB owed it great sums, and the best way to get that money was to ensure peace, whilst not wrecking Germany to the point it couldn't recover.


    Off the top of my head anywya.
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    The OP stated 'agree' I assume he has mixed up allies and enemies.
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    Germany just couldn't keep on fighting, and with the Kaiser hopping off there was nothing left to do apart from sign the Treaty. Otherwise they would have been crushed by the Triple Entente.

    And the Triple Enente just wanted the war over, their publics had grown tired and their countries were nackered.

    Then along came Adolf.....
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    If we go ahead with this treaty vengence will not limp
    J.M Keynes

    God he was right.
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    The problem for the french was that the treaty was actually too light for their purpose. Any Frenchman who saw the demographics, industrial output, and the like knew that Germany would dominante the continent. As such, they argued for the harshest possible terms to even things out, and didnt get them. Instead, they had a mild agreement of a protection alliance which was never validated by the US, meaning that they gained a preconcieved notion of inferiority, meaning they would only take action with other allies (Belgium and holland in the Ruhr in a very limited and legal setting, and only with Britain/Russia in the sudetanland crisis, which they never got). The US wanted self determination, peace to all men, Wilsonian Idealism, but that was only possible if the US and Britain agreed to keep the peace, which was kinda destroyed by the whole isolationism thing.
    Britain actually did very well. We shotguned half of the middle east, as well as parts of africa that were valuable, as well as ensuring naval dominance, until the whole abolition of the two power theory.
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    It is important to note, however, that there is no such thing as determinism. The treaty of Versailles did not mean that WW1 was inevitable, indeed the actual terms of the treaty were comparatively light to the Brest-litovst treaty, and the speed with which Germany was able to rearm kinda destroyed the whole Germany shackled argument. Far more important to the rise of Nazism was the Great Depression, whereby buisnessmen and farmers were united in wanting strong government which wasnt communist. We should also consider German Exceptionalism, which was created in historical thaught by Prussian military dominance and was reinforced by initial German successes, leading to Hitler taking greater risks
    all in all, Versailles meant little, Hitler meant little, Germany's demographics were placed against French dominance of the continent, and the status quo britain wanted. Versailles didnt solve that, making war almost inevitable, and this does clash with my whole determinism thing, but i'm tired and its my first post
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    (Original post by Bubbles*de*Milo)
    :curious:
    Firstly - 'They' were not forced to - the Axis were forced to, not the Allies. The Allies made the Treaty.
    You're wrong.

    In WW1 Germany was on the side of the Allies.
    Britain, France, USA etc. were known as the Triple Entente.
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    (Original post by Zionic)
    You're wrong.

    In WW1 Germany was on the side of the Allies.
    Britain, France, USA etc. were known as the Triple Entente.
    Ermmmmmm.
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    (Original post by Zionic)
    You're wrong.

    In WW1 Germany was on the side of the Allies.
    Britain, France, USA etc. were known as the Triple Entente.
    Germany was on the side of the Central Powers.
    The UK, France and Russia were the Triple Entente. The 'Allies' described the wider alliance as a whole, including Japan, Serbia, Portugal, Italy etc.
    The United States was an 'Associated Power' as it did not formally allign with the Allies, but rather saw itself as an independant third side at war with the Central Powers.
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    (Original post by pol pot noodles)
    Germany was on the side of the Central Powers.
    The UK, France and Russia were the Triple Entente. The 'Allies' described the wider alliance as a whole, including Japan, Serbia, Portugal, Italy etc.
    The United States was an 'Associated Power' as it did not formally allign with the Allies, but rather saw itself as an independant third side at war with the Central Powers.
    Fair enough, but tbf, I was only going from what I read in the horrible history magazines which I read when I was 12.
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    The treaty of Versailles was driven by the French Anglo desire (mostly French) to make sure Germany would never become aggressive again, and to do that they reduced territory and reduced the size of the Army. Although the reparations were crushing nd led to the hyperinflation that was the catalyst for the disintegration of the Wiemar Republic and Nazis rise to power. We have to understand the mind set of the Allies. They had just gone through the worst war in the world, due to Germany. They believed then, and many people still believe now (myself one of them) Germany had to face repercussions for WW1. Yet Germany should not have paid such crushing reparations.
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    (Original post by Toon Fan)
    Although the reparations were crushing nd led to the hyperinflation that was the catalyst for the disintegration of the Wiemar Republic and Nazis rise to power.
    That's a false misconception that was spread by revisionists and apologists. Germany had no problem paying the reparations.
    The first problems were caused by how Germany funded the Great War. While Britain sold assets and France raised taxes to compliment borrowing, Germany funded the war entirely through debt. By 1918 the German Mark was near worthless on the international market. That is bad fiscal policy on Germany's part, NOT THE FAULT OF THE ALLIES
    The Allies initially required that the reparations be payed in Gold Bullion, not worthless paper currency, so the reparations DID NOT in any way cause inflation of the German currency.
    The Allies eventually allowed foreign currency as payment, and Germany began printing money to buy foreign currency to pay the reperations. That is bad fiscal policy on Germany's part, NOT THE FAULT OF THE ALLIES.
    The actual Hyperinfation itself began in early 1923. French and Belgian troops occupied the Ruhr to ensure that reperations were payed in the form of resources like coal rather than worthless bills. Ruhr workers went on strike and the German government decided to print even more money to pay them. Again, bad fiscal policy on Germany's part, NOT THE FAULT OF THE ALLIES
    Reperations were a convenient scapegoat used by Germany's politicians to alleviate themselves from any blame for their mismanagement of the country. In reality they were not 'punishing', 'crippling', or any other term they are often described as, and even if they were, it would have been totally justified considering the carnage Germany had caused.
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    But they weren't crushing reperations, this is the great lie being told. The reperations were initially only percieved to be crushing because the german economy was in pieces and unable to pay them back at that time. Once the German economy got back to its pre-war levels, the reperations werent high enough to actually weaken Germany sufficiently enough, so they were in fact too weak to serve their purpose, If anything, France was entitled to claim even more.

    Also, the fall of weimar came because the loans they took from the US government were either recalled or not forthcoming, therefore it was the great depression, not reperations, which caused it to fall.
    Versailles was largely irrelevant, and is only given attention because we like to feel that we had control over our own destinies, rather than accept the blame lay with others
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    (Original post by pol pot noodles)
    That's a false misconception that was spread by revisionists and apologists. Germany had no problem paying the reparations.
    The first problems were caused by how Germany funded the Great War. While Britain sold assets and France raised taxes to compliment borrowing, Germany funded the war entirely through debt. By 1918 the German Mark was near worthless on the international market. That is bad fiscal policy on Germany's part, NOT THE FAULT OF THE ALLIES
    The Allies initially required that the reparations be payed in Gold Bullion, not worthless paper currency, so the reparations DID NOT in any way cause inflation of the German currency.
    The Allies eventually allowed foreign currency as payment, and Germany began printing money to buy foreign currency to pay the reperations. That is bad fiscal policy on Germany's part, NOT THE FAULT OF THE ALLIES.
    The actual Hyperinfation itself began in early 1923. French and Belgian troops occupied the Ruhr to ensure that reperations were payed in the form of resources like coal rather than worthless bills. Ruhr workers went on strike and the German government decided to print even more money to pay them. Again, bad fiscal policy on Germany's part, NOT THE FAULT OF THE ALLIES
    Reperations were a convenient scapegoat used by Germany's politicians to alleviate themselves from any blame for their mismanagement of the country. In reality they were not 'punishing', 'crippling', or any other term they are often described as, and even if they were, it would have been totally justified considering the carnage Germany had caused.
    No Inflation was caused because the Germans had run out of Gold so they printed more paper currency to pay back reperations. That caused the Hyperinflairon, that showed that led to the break up of the Social Democratic government in Germany ! Look quite clearly... before hyperinflation the Nazis had low support then after the hyperinflaiton couples with the great depression and withdrawel of American loans the Nazis were really popular !
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    (Original post by Toon Fan)
    No Inflation was caused because the Germans had run out of Gold so they printed more paper currency to pay back reperations. That caused the Hyperinflairon, that showed that led to the break up of the Social Democratic government in Germany ! Look quite clearly... before hyperinflation the Nazis had low support then after the hyperinflaiton couples with the great depression and withdrawel of American loans the Nazis were really popular !
    No, hyperinflation was caused by the economic response to the Ruhr worker's strike coupled with a decade of financial mismanagement by incompetant German politicians. I'm not disputing your reasoning of the rise of the Nazi party, I'm disputing you reasoning of the causes of hyperinflation. Germany never ran out of Gold and the Allies did not accept the Mark as a form of repayment. Hyperinflation was caused solely by domestic issues and poor fiscal manangement by the German government.
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    (Original post by pol pot noodles)
    No, hyperinflation was caused by the economic response to the Ruhr worker's strike coupled with a decade of financial mismanagement by incompetant German politicians. I'm not disputing your reasoning of the rise of the Nazi party, I'm disputing you reasoning of the causes of hyperinflation. Germany never ran out of Gold and the Allies did not accept the Mark as a form of repayment. Hyperinflation was caused solely by domestic issues and poor fiscal manangement by the German government.
    Well i was lied to at History GCSE !!!
 
 
 
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