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A 1st from LSE better than 2.1 from Oxbridge?

Essex1985

My view is undoubtedly yes...

what do others think?

Reply 1

davemarkey

2

um..........yes.....obviously

LSE rules! :biggrin:

there's a lot of difference between a 1st and a 2.1

Yes of course.

But is it easier to get 1st from LSE than 2.1 from Oxbridge?

Reply 4

Great1

jacky1129

But is it easier to get 1st from LSE than 2.1 from Oxbridge?

i think it depends on the student, the teaching standard is excellent in both unis, if your willing to put in the work and effort you can get a first from either uni

Reply 5

tuna USA

can anyone explain what a "1st" or "2.1" means, or link me to where I can find out?

Reply 6

Researcher Lond

1

tuna USA

can anyone explain what a "1st" or "2.1" means, or link me to where I can find out?

1st is anything over 70%, 2.1 is 60-69%, 2.2 is 50-59%

The standard reaction to this from an outsider is "lol a 1st is only 70% and above? that's well easy. oh you crazy brits!"

For some reason non-mathematical papers are not marked out of 100 in Britain. To get 70 is very hard - the answer has to be just about perfect. To get 75 is almost unheard of. And an 80 only appears once a decade. Unless a person puts forward a new theory it's impossible to get between 80% to 100%.

Reply 7

President_Ben

15

In answer to the original question: yes.

As for foreigners saying over 70% is easy - my response is "you do it". The UK is widely acknowledged to have the second best set of universities in the world. It isn't because they are easy!

Reply 8

Johan C

13

President_Ben

In answer to the original question: yes.

As for foreigners saying over 70% is easy - my response is "you do it". The UK is widely acknowledged to have the second best set of universities in the world. It isn't because they are easy!

Well, that's only to compensate for the easiness of the A-Levels.

As to the topic at hand, yes, there's no doubt.

Reply 9

Xanthe

1

Researcher Lond

Unless a person puts forward a new theory it's impossible to get between 80% to 100%.

But you do. :tongue:

Reply 10

Knogle

16

I have to agree - 70% by UK standards is not something easy to achieve.

With regards to the original question, I reckon yes.

Reply 11

fundamentally

15

jacky1129

But is it easier to get 1st from LSE than 2.1 from Oxbridge?

It is actually harder to get a 1st at the LSE than a 1st at Oxford.

Reply 12

gemma123

1

Is that 70% thing true for quantitative modules too?

Reply 13

President_Ben

15

gemma123

Is that 70% thing true for quantitative modules too?

It is 70% for any module unless it is explicitly stated that they use a 'relative' awarding system as opposed to an absolute one.

Reply 14

Socrates

17

If I was an employer I reckon I'd take the 2:1 from Oxbridge, as would most people. But only just.

Reply 15

alisama

1

do universities have a "quota" of how many firsts they give out?

ie. thats why it is harder to get a first at lse than oxbridge.

Reply 16

President_Ben

15

Socrates

If I was an employer I reckon I'd take the 2:1 from Oxbridge, as would most people. But only just.

Then you're a nutter :wink:

You clearly haven't met enough people from Oxbridge and various other top unis because you'd very soon realise that very little separates these people just because of the university they attend.

The only reason I might consider taking the 2.1 person over the First is because I reckon the 2.1 candidate has got a life!!

It appears harder to get a first at LSE because they give out less. Universities do not have a quota on degree classifications if they use an absolute awarding system as opposed to a relative one.

Reply 17

Knogle

16

President_Ben

Then you're a nutter :wink:

You clearly haven't met enough people from Oxbridge and various other top unis because you'd very soon realise that very little separates these people just because of the university they attend.

The only reason I might consider taking the 2.1 person over the First is because I reckon the 2.1 candidate has got a life!!

It appears harder to get a first at LSE because they give out less. Universities do not have a quota on degree classifications if they use an absolute awarding system as opposed to a relative one.

So LSE uses a relative awarding system?