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    We were told, for Edexcel Economics AS, that you get marks for Knowledge, Application, Analysis, and Evaluation. I think I understand what the Knowledge marks are for, but I don't really know what the other 3 are...Application is applying the knowledge to the context, but surely that's also to do with saying whether it's a good thing or bad thing, which is also Analysis and Evaluation? :O A little confused here
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    (Original post by Zygroth)
    We were told, for Edexcel Economics AS, that you get marks for Knowledge, Application, Analysis, and Evaluation. I think I understand what the Knowledge marks are for, but I don't really know what the other 3 are...Application is applying the knowledge to the context, but surely that's also to do with saying whether it's a good thing or bad thing, which is also Analysis and Evaluation? :O A little confused here
    You've got the general idea.
    I do OCR Economics (A2 now) and those 4 basically correspond to the 4 levels we have to pass through to get the higher marks.
    Application is simply giving context to the knowledge.
    Analysis I'd say is going into more detail, drawing the diagrams, suggesting possible effects, etc.
    Evaluation is where you'd say if it's a good thing or a bad thing (if you wanted to). You'd also suggest limitations to your analysis, other factors to consider, etc.
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    Does anyone have the OCR Development paper/examiner's report/mark scheme from 2005? It's the only set missing from my notes.
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    In addition to my earlier request, could someone please tell me why values for GNP per head (US$) could be so different for GDP per head (ppp US$), considering GDP is a part of GNP?
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    (Original post by Ploop)
    In addition to my earlier request, could someone please tell me why values for GNP per head (US$) could be so different for GDP per head (ppp US$), considering GDP is a part of GNP?
    GNP per head shouldn't be that different to GDP per head.
    But the "ppp" (Purchasing Power Parity I think) means it has adjusted to take into account how much a typical 'basket' of goods cost in that country.
    So if the basket costs 10 times less in a particular country, the GDP per head has to be multiplied by 10 times to take into account the cost of living and get a truer value.
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    (Original post by Ploop)
    In addition to my earlier request, could someone please tell me why values for GNP per head (US$) could be so different for GDP per head (ppp US$), considering GDP is a part of GNP?
    GDP is not a part of GNP.
    GDP measures the total value of goods produced within the country's borders.
    GNP measures the total value of goods produced by citizens (and firms) of that country.
    So they can be completely different. Developing countries, for example, have a much lower GNP than GDP, since they tend to have a lot of MNCs in their country sending profits back to their home countries.
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    (Original post by biggie-n)
    GDP is not a part of GNP.
    GDP measures the total value of goods produced within the country's borders.
    GNP measures the total value of goods produced by citizens (and firms) of that country.
    So they can be completely different. Developing countries, for example, have a much lower GNP than GDP, since they tend to have a lot of MNCs in their country sending profits back to their home countries.
    Good point, I didn't think of developing countries as the figures for the UK are quite similar.
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    (Original post by biggie-n)
    GDP is not a part of GNP.
    GDP measures the total value of goods produced within the country's borders.
    GNP measures the total value of goods produced by citizens (and firms) of that country.
    So they can be completely different. Developing countries, for example, have a much lower GNP than GDP, since they tend to have a lot of MNCs in their country sending profits back to their home countries.
    I thought GNP was GDP + income generated abroad but accrued to domestic residents - income generated domestically but accrued to foreign residents?

    Anyway, thanks for the answer, it certainly fits in with the data provided.
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    Sorry to be a nuisance again (last time!), but when there is a monopolistic market on an invaluable commodity to a developing country (e.g. mining industry), does the fact it's monopolistic mean that there will be a great disparity in distribution of income since the firm can afford to be ruthless in their payment of manual workers and such like? Also, if that is correct, why would 'lesser' jobs go to immigrants if conditions in the monopolistic market are so bad?

    Thanks in advance for any help, it's been several months since I last did some Economics, hence my inexcusable rustiness!
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    Need help this economics essay question: "Explain how and why transport economist make transport forecast"

    we havent actually been taught it yet and i cant find it in my text books please help.
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    Thats how the question was giving to me
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    Well the question is perfectly fine except for a missing letter 's' here and there.
    "Explain how and why transport economists make transport forecasts"
    I have no idea. Someone with transport economics experience plz?
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    I need two factors to explain why infant mortality rates and life expectancy can be so different. I assume that susceptibility to diseases must be one of the two?
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    (Original post by CorpusNinja)
    Well the question is perfectly fine except for a missing letter 's' here and there.
    "Explain how and why transport economists make transport forecasts"
    I have no idea. Someone with transport economics experience plz?
    Why: To aid formulation of government transport policy (and wider ones too); refer to congestion, environment and tax revenues.

    How: Past trends in transport, elasticities of demand and trends in factors influencing demand (population structure, price, income etc.)

    Hope that helps a little.
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    (Original post by Ploop)
    I need two factors to explain why infant mortality rates and life expectancy can be so different. I assume that susceptibility to diseases must be one of the two?
    If both are high or if both are low? Poor diet can drive life expectancy down (unhealthy, high fat foods etc) without increasing infant mortality, as children rarely have heart attacks
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    (Original post by Pabs666)
    that question does not make sense. im guessing english is not your first language? ask whoever gave you the question to rephrase it for you.
    Yes english is my first language and apart from the missing "s" on forcast it seemed fine to me

    Thank you ploop
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    (Original post by chocolatekiss)
    Yes english is my first language and apart from the missing "s" on forcast it seemed fine to me

    Thank you ploop
    Not a problem.

    Cheers Apagg, both indicators were indicative of developing countries, it's just that some had the same life expectancy with one country with a poor infant mortality rate and one with a considerably better one. That's completed my answer anyway, so cheers.
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    Silly me!
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    I assume you're asking for help.

    I think, though am a bit rusty on Labour Economics (and this is just brief):

    A) Doctor: Inelastic supply (it takes a long time to train a doctor etc), and relatively low supply. Demand: High demand - we'll all die without them. Therefore high wages. Although, there is a (correct me if I'm remembering wrong) a negative compenstating differential. This means that because a doctor gets satisfaction from his work (saving all those people etc) their wages are lower than they would otherwise be. Though this might just be explained through demand/supply - can't quite remember.

    B) Computer programmer: Kinda similar to doctor, it requires specialist skills, though training is probably quicker and supply probably proportionately greater. But still, inelastic supply. Demand is probably gonna be, perhaps, slightly inelastic - most businesses need their computers fixed pronto when problems arise. So, relatively high wages, though not as high as a doctors, due to quite low supply and relatively high demand.

    C) A waiter: Supply - Large supply, most people have the skills. The elasticity of supply will be elastic, it's relatively quick and easy to hirer and train a new waiter. Demand - not particularly high, and I'd have thought elastic. Overall low wages due to high supply / low demand.

    D) Checkout worker: Supply - Very large supply, 99% of people can do the job. Very elastic supply. Demand - Low probably, elastic again. The wages will be low, probably lowest.

    Obviously you can use diagrams to explain all this easily, and that'd probably be the thing to do.

    If this is for edexcel economics, I have some not too bad notes on unit 2,3,4,5,6. Ask if you think they'd be handy.

    P.S. I may very well be completely wrong on everything, I did completely screw up labour markets, dunno how, I thought it was easiest, perhaps that's why though...
 
 
 
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