Hi, I am trying to solve a problem for a maths coursework and I am trying an alternative approach. I have gathered from some other sources I might need something called integration.
I have f''(x) = (x-0)(x-p)
I need to obtain a quartic function from that somehow... Is there a way to do this?
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- Thread Starter
- 18-02-2006 21:35
- 18-02-2006 21:49
f''(x) = (x-0)(x-p) = (x)(x-p) = x^2 - px
ok. the fundamental theorem of calculus defines integration as geing the invert of differentiation. So, we 'reverse differentiate' twice to find f(x).
given dy/dx = nmx^n-1 for y=mx^n, it should eb clear the integral of mx^n is (mx^(n+1))/(n+1) + c. the c denotes some constant which would have been gotten rid of by the differentiation process. so,w e apply this twice tog et to f(x):
f''(x) = x^2 - px
f'(x) = (x^3)/3 - (px^2)/2 + c
f(x) = (x^4)/12 - (px^3)/6 + cx + k