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land law acquisition mortgage

The date where the overriding interests will bind the purchaser is the date of registration save for actual occupation in acquisition mortgage. I understand why for actual occupation we look more during the date of completion, but why does this not apply to other overriding interest?

Also, if it is a mortgage that is not for acquisition, do we still look at date of completion for actual occupation, or do we look at date of registration?
So for acquisition mortgages, there is the special rule in Cann that the overriding interest is determined at completion of the sale, not the date of registration. If this wasn't the case, there would be the absurd result that A could remain registered proprietor until B registers his title after transfer, and in the meantime grant all sorts of additional interests to C which could bind B.


I'm not sure what you mean by why it doesn't apply to other overriding interests? In my opinion, the judgment in Cann made it clear that all overriding interests are determined at the date of completion of the purchase; so that would include Sch 3 Para 1 and Para 3 interests too. The judgment never said that actual occupation is the only overriding interest which is assessed at the date of completion, rather than registration.
(edited 12 years ago)
Reply 2
Original post by suffocation1992
So for acquisition mortgages, there is the special rule in Cann that the overriding interest is determined at completion of the sale, not the date of registration. If this wasn't the case, there would be the absurd result that A could remain registered proprietor until B registers his title after transfer, and in the meantime grant all sorts of additional interests to C which could bind B.


I'm not sure what you mean by why it doesn't apply to other overriding interests? In my opinion, the judgment in Cann made it clear that all overriding interests are determined at the date of completion of the purchase; so that would include Sch 3 Para 1 and Para 3 interests too. The judgment never said that actual occupation is the only overriding interest which is assessed at the date of completion, rather than registration.


This did not seem explicit in the judgment tho-that it applies to para 1 n 3 overriding interests?

Also, what about non-acquisition mortgages? All overriding interests take priority at the date of registration?
Original post by Jilly.0
This did not seem explicit in the judgment tho-that it applies to para 1 n 3 overriding interests?

Also, what about non-acquisition mortgages? All overriding interests take priority at the date of registration?


Well it wasn't explicit in the judgment, but their lordships used the phrases ''overriding interests are determined at the date of completion.'' So they didn't seem to limit it to actual occupation.

I have no idea what the answer is to your second question. Maybe extremely specific things like that may be worth raising with your tutor?
Reply 4
Original post by suffocation1992
Well it wasn't explicit in the judgment, but their lordships used the phrases ''overriding interests are determined at the date of completion.'' So they didn't seem to limit it to actual occupation.

I have no idea what the answer is to your second question. Maybe extremely specific things like that may be worth raising with your tutor?


I think ur right after reading the whole (long)judgment :biggrin: thanks!
Original post by Jilly.0
I think ur right after reading the whole (long)judgment :biggrin: thanks!


Aw you should have just asked, I'd have sent you my summary! :smile:
Reply 6
Original post by suffocation1992
Aw you should have just asked, I'd have sent you my summary! :smile:


aw! thanks nonetheless! Btw can i just confirm that negative easements are those that restricts the servient owner to do something on his own land-like restrictive covenants and positive easements are those that allows dominant land owner to do something on the servient land?

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